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NEW QUESTION 461
A technician set up a new multifunction printer. After adding the printer to the print server, the technician configured the printer on each user’s machine. Several days later, users reported that they were no longer able to print, but scanning to email worked. Which of the following is most likely causing this issue?
A. The gateway is no longer being reached.
B. The network firewall was enabled.
C. The printer’s network interface failed.
D. The printer had DHCP enabled.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The most likely cause of this issue is that the printer had DHCP enabled, which changed its IP address after adding it to the print server and configuring it on each user’s machine. DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) is a network protocol that assigns IP addresses and other network configuration parameters to devices automatically, without manual intervention. DHCP can simplify network management and avoid IP conflicts, but it can also cause problems if the devices are not configured to use static or reserved IP addresses. If the printer had DHCP enabled, it might have received a different IP address from the DHCP server after rebooting or reconnecting to the network, which would make it unreachable by the print server and the users’ machines that were configured with the previous IP address. Scanning to email would still work, as it does not depend on the print server or the users’ machines, but on the printer’s SMTP settings and internet connection.
NEW QUESTION 462
A server administrator is setting up a disk with enforcement policies on how much data each home share can hold. The amount of data that is redundant on the server must also be minimized. Which of the following should the administrator perform on the server? (Choose two.)
A. Partitioning.
B. Deduplication.
C. Disk quotas.
D. Compression.
E. Cloning.
F. Provisioning.
Answer: BC
Explanation:
Deduplication is a process that eliminates redundant data blocks and reduces the amount of storage space needed. Disk quotas are policies that limit the amount of disk space that each user or group can use on a volume.
NEW QUESTION 463
A company needs a media server set up that provides the highest availability with a minimum requirement of at least 10TB. The company purchased five HDDs, each with a 4TB capacity. Which of the options would provide the highest fault tolerance and meet the requirements?
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 5
C. RAID 6
D. RAID 10
Answer: C
Explanation:
RAID 6 is a RAID level that uses disk striping with two parity blocks distributed across all member disks. It can tolerate the failure of up to two disks without losing any dat a. RAID 6 can provide a minimum of 10TB of usable storage space with five 4TB disks, as the formula for calculating the RAID 6 capacity is (n-2) x Smin, where n is the number of disks and Smin is the smallest disk size. In this case, the RAID 6 capacity is (5-2) x 4TB = 12TB.
NEW QUESTION 464
An administrator is setting up a new server and has been asked to install an operating system that does not have a GUI because the server has limited resources. Which of the following installation options should the administrator use?
A. Bare metal.
B. Headless.
C. Virtualized.
D. Slipstreamed.
Answer: B
Explanation:
A headless installation is an installation method that does not require a graphical user interface (GUI) or a monitor, keyboard, and mouse. It can be done remotely through a network connection or a command-line interface. A headless installation is suitable for a server that has limited resources and does not need a GUI.
NEW QUESTION 465
A server administrator implemented a new backup solution and needs to configure backup methods for remote sites. These remote sites have low bandwidth and backups must not interfere with the network during normal business hours. Which of the following methods can be used to meet these requirements? (Choose two.)
A. Open file.
B. Archive.
C. Cloud.
D. Snapshot.
E. Differential.
F. Synthetic full.
Answer: BE
Explanation:
Archive is a method of storing historical data that is not frequently accessed or modified. Archive can reduce the amount of data that needs to be backed up and save bandwidth and storage space. Differential is a method of backing up only the data that has changed since the last full backup. Differential can also save bandwidth and storage space, as well as speed up the backup process.
NEW QUESTION 466
A user can successfully connect to a database server from a home office but is unable to access it from a hotel room. Which of the following authentication methods is most likely configured?
A. Delegation.
B. Role-based.
C. Rule-based.
D. Scope-based.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Scope-based authentication is a method of restricting access to resources based on the location, network, or device of the user. It can be used to prevent unauthorized access from outside the organization’s network or from untrusted devices. In this case, the user can connect to the database server from the home office, which is likely within the scope of the authentication policy, but not from the hotel room, which is outside the scope.
NEW QUESTION 467
Due to a disaster incident on a primary site, corporate users are redirected to cloud services where they will be required to be authenticated just once in order to use all cloud services. Which of the following types of authentications is described in this scenario?
A. MFA
B. NTLM
C. Kerberos
D. SSO
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 468
An administrator restores several database files without error while participating in a mock disaster recovery exercise. Later, the administrator reports that the restored databases are corrupt and cannot be used. Which of the following would best describe what caused this issue?
A. The databases were not backed up to be application consistent.
B. The databases were asynchronously replicated.
C. The databases were mirrored.
D. The database files were locked during the restoration process.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Application consistent backup is a method of backing up data that ensures the integrity and consistency of the application state. It involves notifying the application to flush its data from memory to disk and quiescing any write operations before taking a snapshot of the data. If the databases were not backed up to be application consistent, they might contain incomplete or corrupted data that cannot be restored properly.
NEW QUESTION 469
A startup company needs to set up an initial disaster recovery site. The site must be cost-effective and deployed quickly. Which of the following sites should the company set up?
A. Hot
B. Cold
C. Colocated
D. Warm
Answer: B
Explanation:
A cold site is a backup facility with little or no hardware equipment installed. A cold site is the most cost-effective option among the three disaster recovery sites. However, due to the fact that a cold site doesn’t have any pre-installed equipment, it takes a lot of time to properly set it up so as to fully resume business operations.
NEW QUESTION 470
Which of the following license types most commonly describes a product that incurs a yearly cost regardless of how much it is used?
A. Physical.
B. Subscription.
C. Open-source.
D. Per instance.
E. Per concurrent user.
Answer: B
Explanation:
A subscription license is a type of license that grants the user the right to use a product or service for a fixed period of time, usually a year. The user pays a recurring fee, regardless of how much they use the product or service. Subscription licenses are common for cloud-based software and services, such as Microsoft 365 or DocuSign.
NEW QUESTION 471
An administrator is troubleshooting a server that is rebooting and crashing. The administrator notices that the server is making sounds that are louder than usual. Upon closer inspection, the administrator discovers that the noises are coming from the front of the chassis. Which of the following is the most likely reason for this behavior?
A. One of the fans has failed.
B. The power supply has failed.
C. The RAM is malfunctioning.
D. The CPU is overheating.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A server has multiple fans inside the chassis to cool down the components and prevent overheating. If one of the fans fails, it can cause the server to reboot and crash due to thermal issues. A failed fan can also make loud noises due to friction or vibration. The administrator should check the fans and clean them from dust and debris, or replace them if they are damaged.
NEW QUESTION 472
A server administrator is tasked with upgrading the network on a server to 40Gbps. After installing the card, which of the following connectors should the administrator use?
A. QSFP+
B. 10 GigE
C. SFP
D. SFP+
Answer: A
Explanation:
QSFP+ (Quad Small Form-Factor Pluggable Plus): This transceiver type is designed specifically to handle 40Gbps network speeds. QSFP+ connectors are hot-swappable and support various cable types, including fiber optic and copper (DAC).
10GigE: While a valid network technology, 10GigE only supports up to 10Gbps, not the required 40Gbps.
SFP (Small Form-factor Pluggable): A common transceiver type, but the standard SFP only supports a maximum of 1Gbps.
SFP+ (Enhanced Small Form-factor Pluggable): Supports up to 10Gbps, not sufficient for 40Gbps in this scenario.
NEW QUESTION 473
Which of the following describes the concept of allocating more resources than what is available on a hypervisor?
A. Direct access.
B. Overprovisioning.
C. Link aggregation.
D. Component redundancy.
E. Scalability.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Overprovisioning: Involves allocating more virtual resources (e.g., CPU, RAM, storage) to virtual machines than the total physical resources available on a hypervisor. The idea is for resources to be dynamically shared, assuming not all VMs will demand their maximum allocation simultaneously.
Direct Access: This usually refers to technologies like RDMA (Remote Direct Memory Access) that allow for very low-latency, direct access to the memory of another computer over a network.
Link Aggregation: The practice of combining multiple physical network links to create a single logical link with increased bandwidth.
Component Redundancy: Refers to having multiple hardware components (e.g., power supplies, hard drives) to provide fault tolerance.
Scalability: The ability of a system to adapt and handle increased workloads by adding resources.
NEW QUESTION 474
A technician is installing an OS on ten servers. Which of the following media installation types would allow for the fastest installation time?
A. Network
B. Embedded
C. Optical
D. USB
Answer: A
Explanation:
Network Installation: Allows the OS image to be deployed from a central server, streamlining deployment across multiple systems simultaneously. This is significantly faster than individual installations from other media.
Embedded: Refers to OSes pre-installed on hardware and not intended for mass deployment.
Optical (CDs/DVDs): Requires physical media insertion on each server, slower than network distribution.
USB: Similar to optical, requires individual installations and can be time-consuming for multiple servers.
NEW QUESTION 475
A web server that is being deployed in the perimeter network needs to be shielded from malicious traffic. Which of the following could help identify these threats?
A. Applying OS updates.
B. Disabling unused services.
C. Implementing HIDS.
D. Installing anti-malware.
Answer: C
Explanation:
HIDS (Host Intrusion Detection System): Continuously monitors a system for suspicious activity and logs or raises alerts when potential threats are identified. This proactive approach is crucial for identifying and mitigating threats on a web server exposed to the external network.
Applying OS updates: While essential for maintaining system security, updates address vulnerabilities and may not necessarily identify ongoing threats.
Disabling unused services: Reduces the attack surface by minimizing potential entry points for malicious actors, but doesn’t actively identify threats.
Installing anti-malware: Primarily designed to detect and remove malware after infection, not for ongoing threat identification.
NEW QUESTION 476
A systems administrator is provisioning a large number of virtual Linux machines that will be configured identically. The administrator would like to configure the machines quickly and easily but does not have access to an automation/orchestration platform. Additionally, the administrator would like to set up a system that can be used in the future, even on newer versions of the OS. Which of the following will best meet the administrator’s requirements?
A. Deploying each server from a VM template.
B. Using a kickstart file during installation.
C. Configuring each server manually one at a time.
D. Copying/pasting configuration commands into each server through SSH sessions.
E. Configuring a single server and then creating clones of it.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Kickstart Files (Linux): Kickstart files are configuration files that automate the Linux installation process. They contain pre-determined answers to installation prompts, allowing for identical and rapid deployment of multiple systems.
VM Template (A): Templates are useful for replicating the OS & some software, but might not capture all configurations.
Manual Configuration (C): Time-consuming and prone to errors when replicating across many servers.
Copy/Paste via SSH (D): Tedious, error-prone, and requires servers to be online before configuration.
Cloning (E): Can work but has version compatibility risks if the OS of the cloned server isn’t identical to the new ones.
NEW QUESTION 477
Which of the following authentication types defines credentials as “something you have”?
A. Swipe pattern.
B. PIN.
C. Fingerprint.
D. Smart card.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The concept of authentication is rooted in the principle of verifying identity, which is commonly broken down into three categories: “something you know” (like a password or PIN), “something you have” (such as a smart card or a security token), and “something you are” (biometric data, for example, fingerprints). The question asks for the authentication type defined by “something you have.”
NEW QUESTION 478
A new company policy requires that any data loss in excess of one hour is unacceptable in the event of a disaster. Which of the following concepts is being referred to in this policy?
A. MTTR
B. RTO
C. RPO
D. MTBF
Answer: C
Explanation:
The Recovery Point Objective (RPO) refers to the maximum tolerable period in which data might be lost from an IT service due to a major incident. The policy mentioned in the question highlights that data loss exceeding one hour is unacceptable, directly relating to the RPO concept. RPO is critical in disaster recovery and business continuity planning, indicating the age of the files that must be recovered from backup storage for normal operations to resume without significant losses. MTTR (Mean Time To Repair), RTO (Recovery Time Objective), and MTBF (Mean Time Between Failures) are related concepts but do not specifically address the amount of data loss that can be tolerated.
NEW QUESTION 479
A server administrator is tasked with upgrading the network on a server to 40Gbps. After installing the card, which of the following connectors should the administrator use?
A. QSFP+
B. 10 GigE
C. SFP
D. SFP+
Answer: A
Explanation:
QSFP+ (Quad Small Form-factor Pluggable Plus) connectors are used in high-density, high-speed networking solutions such as 40 Gigabit Ethernet (40GbE) interfaces. When upgrading a server’s network to 40Gbps, QSFP+ is the appropriate choice due to its capability to support such high-speed data transfer rates. 10 GigE, SFP, and SFP+ connectors are used for lower speed connections (10Gbps and below for SFP+ and 10 GigE, and even less for SFP), making them unsuitable for a 40Gbps network upgrade.
NEW QUESTION 480
Which of the following should a technician verify first before decommissioning and wiping a file server?
A. The media destruction method.
B. The recycling policy.
C. Asset management documentation.
D. Document retention policy.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Before decommissioning and wiping a file server, it’s crucial to verify the asset management documentation. This documentation provides detailed records of the server’s lifecycle, including procurement, usage, maintenance, and decommissioning information. Ensuring that asset management documentation is up-to-date and accurate is essential before proceeding with the server’s decommissioning to maintain proper inventory control, comply with regulatory and organizational policies, and facilitate any potential audits. While the media destruction method, recycling policy, and document retention policy are important considerations in the decommissioning process, verifying asset management documentation is the first step to ensure the server is correctly identified and accounted for in the organization’s asset registry.
NEW QUESTION 481
An administrator is setting up a new employee’s read/write access to a document on the file server. Currently, the user can open the file, but edits cannot be saved. Which of the following should the administrator do so the user can save the updated file while maintaining least-privilege access?
A. Give the user “read and execute” rights to the file.
B. Give the user “modify” rights to the file.
C. Give the user “list folder contents” rights to the folder.
D. Give the user “full control” rights to the folder.
Answer: B
Explanation:
To enable a user to both read and write to a file, the administrator needs to provide “modify” rights. This permission level allows the user not only to open and view the file (read) but also to make changes and save those changes back to the file (write). “Read and execute” rights would allow the user to open and run the file but not make any changes. “List folder contents” rights would enable the user to view the files within a folder but not make changes to them. “Full control” rights would provide the user with complete control over the file, including the ability to change permissions and delete the file, which exceeds the principle of least-privilege access necessary for this task.
NEW QUESTION 482
An IT administrator is configuring ten new desktops without an operating system. The infrastructure contains an imaging server and operating system loaded on a USB, a DVD, and an SD card. Which of the following options would minimize the amount of time the administrator needs to load the operating system on every machine?
A. SD card.
B. Optical.
C. Network.
D. USB.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Using a network-based deployment, such as network booting (PXE – Preboot Execution Environment) or imaging through a server, is the most efficient way to load operating systems onto multiple machines simultaneously. This approach minimizes the manual intervention required for each device, as the administrator can initiate the operating system installation or imaging process across all desktops at once through the network. In contrast, using an SD card, DVD (Optical), or USB would require the administrator to physically move the media from one desktop to another, significantly increasing the setup time for each device.
NEW QUESTION 483
A server administrator is replacing a faulty PSU. The management team has asked for a solution that prevents further downtime in the future. Which of the following can the server administrator implement?
A. Separate circuits.
B. Load balancing.
C. Server monitoring.
D. Redundancy.
Answer: D
Explanation:
A faulty PSU needs replacement, and the management team wants a solution to prevent future downtime. Solution: Implement redundancy (Option D): Redundant power supplies ensure that if one fails, the other takes over seamlessly. Separate circuits, load balancing, and server monitoring are important but do not directly prevent PSU failures.
NEW QUESTION 484
A startup is migrating a stand-alone application that stores Pll to the cloud. Which of the following should be encrypted?
A. Data in transit.
B. Data at rest.
C. Data backups.
D. Data archives.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Scenario: Migrating a stand-alone application storing PII to the cloud. Data to Encrypt: Data at rest (Option B) should be encrypted:
– Data in transit (Option A) and backups (Option C) are also important but not the primary concern here.
– Data archives (Option D) may or may not contain sensitive data.
NEW QUESTION 485
A technician is configuring a new server with four disks for the development team. The requirements are disk redundancy and maximum usable disk capacity. Which of the following RAID levels should be used for this server?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 5
D. 10
Answer: D
Explanation:
Scenario: Four disks, requiring redundancy and maximum usable capacity. RAID Level: RAID 10 (Option D) is the best choice: RAID 10 combines mirroring (redundancy) and striping (performance). RAID 0 lacks redundancy, RAID 1 provides less capacity, and RAID 5 requires more.
NEW QUESTION 486
An administrator received an alert that a backup job has been unsuccessful in the previous three attempts. The administrator discovers the issue occurred while backing up a user’s data on a network share. Which of the following actions would be best to allow the job to complete successfully?
A. Enabling open file backups in the backup job.
B. Moving the user’s data off the network share.
C. Excluding the user’s data from the backup.
D. Changing the backup job to exclude certain file types.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Enabling open file backups allows the backup software to copy files that are currently open or in use by applications. This ensures that even if a file is actively being modified during the backup process, it will still be included in the backup. Advantages: Ensures consistency of backed-up data, especially for files that are frequently accessed or modified. Prevents data loss due to files being skipped during backup.
NEW QUESTION 487
A data center employee shows a driver’s license to enter the facility. Once the employee enters, the door immediately doses and locks, triggering a scale that then weighs the employee before granting access to another locked door. This is an example of what?
A. mantrap
B. a bollard
C. geofencing
D. RFID
Answer: A
Explanation:
A mantrap is a security device that consists of a small space with two sets of interlocking doors, such that the first set of doors must close before the second one opens. A mantrap can be used to control access to a data center by verifying the identity and weight of the person entering. A bollard is a sturdy post that prevents vehicles from entering a restricted area. Geofencing is a technology that uses GPS or RFID to create a virtual boundary around a location and trigger an action when a device crosses it. RFID is a technology that uses radio waves to identify and track objects or people.
NEW QUESTION 488
The HIDS logs on a server indicate a significant number of unauthorized access attempts via USB devices at startup. Which of the following steps should a server administrator take to BEST secure the server without limiting functionality?
A. Set a BIOS/UEFI password on the server.
B. Change the boot order on the server and restrict console access.
C. Configure the host OS to deny login attempts via USB.
D. Disable all the USB ports on the server.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Changing the boot order on the server and restricting console access would prevent unauthorized access attempts via USB devices at startup, as the server would not boot from any external media and only authorized users could access the console. Setting a BIOS/UEFI password on the server would also help, but it could be bypassed by resetting the CMOS battery or using a backdoor password. Configuring the host OS to deny login attempts via USB would not prevent booting from a malicious USB device that could compromise the system before the OS loads. Disabling all the USB ports on the server would limit functionality, as some peripherals or devices may need to use them.
NEW QUESTION 489
A server administrator is implementing an authentication policy that will require users to use a token during login. Which of the following types of authentication is the administrator implementing?
A. Something you are.
B. Something you know.
C. Something you have.
D. Something you do.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Something you have is one of the types of authentication methods that relies on a physical object or device that the user possesses to verify their identity. A token is an example of something you have, as it is a small device that generates a one-time password or code that the user enters during login. A token can be a hardware device, such as a key fob or a smart card, or a software application, such as an app on a smartphone or a browser extension. A token provides an additional layer of security to the authentication process, as it prevents unauthorized access even if the user’s username and password are compromised.
NEW QUESTION 490
Corporate policy mandates that logs from all servers be available for review regardless of the state of the server. Which of the following must be configured to comply with this policy?
A. Aggregation
B. Subscription
C. Merging
D. Collection
Answer: A
Explanation:
Aggregation is the process of collecting, standardizing, and consolidating log data from multiple sources into a central location. Aggregation makes it easier to search, analyze, and report on log data, as well as to comply with security policies and regulations. By aggregating logs from all servers, regardless of their state, the corporate policy can ensure that no log data is lost or inaccessible in case of a server failure or outage.
NEW QUESTION 491
A server administrator is racking new servers in a cabinet with multiple connections from the servers to power supplies and the network. Which of the following should the administrator recommend to the organization to best address this situation?
A. Rack balancing.
B. Cable management.
C. Blade enclosure.
D. Rail kits.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Cable management is the process of organizing, securing, and labeling cables in a server rack or cabinet. Cable management can help improve airflow and cooling, reduce clutter and confusion, prevent damage and interference, and enhance safety and aesthetics. Cable management can be achieved by using various tools and accessories, such as cable trays, ties, hooks, clips, labels, ducts, and organizers.
NEW QUESTION 492
A systems administrator needs to back up changes made to a data store on a daily basis during a short time frame. The administrator wants to maximize RTO when restoring data. Which of the following backup methodologies would best fit this scenario?
A. Off-site backups.
B. Full backups.
C. Differential backups.
D. Incremental backups.
Answer: D
Explanation:
An incremental backup is a backup method that only backs up the files that have changed since the last backup, whether it was a full or an incremental backup. An incremental backup can save disk space and time, as it only copies the new or modified data. An incremental backup can also improve the RTO (Recovery Time Objective), which is the maximum acceptable time to restore data after a disaster. This is because an incremental backup can restore data faster than a full or a differential backup, as it only needs to apply the latest changes to the previous backup.
NEW QUESTION 493
A server administrator is creating a script that will move files only if they were created before a date input by the user. Which of the following constructs will allow the script to apply this test until all available files are assessed?
A. Variable
B. Loop
C. Comparator
D. Conditional
Answer: B
Explanation:
A loop is a script construct that allows the script to repeat a block of code until a certain condition is met or for a specified number of times. A loop can be used to apply a test to each file in a directory and move the files that meet the criteria.
NEW QUESTION 494
An organization stores backup tapes of its servers at cold sites. The organization wants to ensure the tapes are properly maintained and usable during a DR scenario. Which of the following actions should the organization perform?
A. Have the facility inspect and inventory the tapes on a regular basis.
B. Have duplicate equipment available at the cold site.
C. Retrieve the tapes from the cold site and test them.
D. Use the test equipment at the cold site to read the tapes.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The organization should retrieve the tapes from the cold site and test them to ensure they are properly maintained and usable during a DR scenario. A cold site is a location that has space and power for backup equipment, but no actual equipment installed or configured. The organization stores backup tapes of its servers at cold sites as a precaution in case of a disaster that affects its primary site. However, backup tapes can degrade over time due to environmental factors such as temperature, humidity, dust, or magnetic fields. Therefore, the organization should periodically retrieve the tapes from the cold site and test them on compatible equipment to verify their integrity and readability.
NEW QUESTION 495
An organization recently experienced power outages. The administrator noticed the server did not have enough time to shut down properly. After the outages, the administrator had additional batteries installed in the UPS. Which of the following best describes the solution the administrator implemented?
A. The solution reduced shutdown time.
B. The solution improved load balancing.
C. The solution increased power out.
D. The solution extended runtime.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The solution the administrator implemented extended runtime. Runtime is the amount of time that a UPS can provide backup power to a server in case of a power outage. By installing additional batteries in the UPS, the administrator increased the capacity and duration of the backup power, allowing the server more time to shut down properly.
NEW QUESTION 496
An administrator is working on improving the security of a new domain controller. A report indicates several open ports on the server. Which of the following ports should the administrator disable?
A. 135
B. 636
C. 3268
D. 3389
Answer: D
Explanation:
The port that should be disabled on the firewall is port 3389. Port 3389 is used by Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP), which is a protocol that allows remote access and control of a Windows system through a graphical user interface. RDP can pose a security risk if it is not properly configured or secured, as it can expose the system to unauthorized or malicious access from external sources. Therefore, port 3389 should be disabled on the firewall unless it is needed for legitimate purposes.
NEW QUESTION 497
A technician is sizing a new server and, for service reasons, needs as many hot-swappable components as possible. Which of the following server components can most commonly be replaced without downtime? (Choose three.)
A. Drives.
B. Fans.
C. CMOSIC.
D. Processor.
E. Power supplies.
F. Motherboard.
G. Memory.
H. BIOS.
Answer: ABE
Explanation:
Drives, fans, and power supplies are server components that can most commonly be replaced without downtime if they are hot-swappable. Hot-swappable components can be removed and inserted while the server is running, without affecting its operation or performance. Drives store data and applications, fans cool down the server components, and power supplies provide electricity to the server. Replacing these components can prevent data loss, overheating, or power failure.
NEW QUESTION 498
……
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