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NEW QUESTION 221
Which of the following risks can be mitigated by HTTP headers?
A.   SQLi
B.   XSS
C.   DoS
D.   SSL
Answer: B
Explanation:
HTTP headers can be used to mitigate risks associated with Cross-Site Scripting (XSS). Security-related HTTP headers such as Content Security Policy (CSP) and X-XSS-Protection can be configured to prevent the execution of malicious scripts in the context of a web page.
– XSS (Cross-Site Scripting): A vulnerability that allows attackers to inject malicious scripts into web pages viewed by other users. HTTP headers like CSP help prevent XSS attacks by specifying which dynamic resources are allowed to load.
– SQLi (SQL Injection): Typically mitigated by using parameterized queries and input validation, not HTTP headers.
– DoS (Denial of Service): Mitigated by network and application-level defenses rather than HTTP headers.
– SSL (Secure Sockets Layer): Refers to securing communications and is not directly mitigated by HTTP headers; rather, it’s implemented using SSL/TLS protocols.
NEW QUESTION 222
Which of the following describes the category of data that is most impacted when it is lost?
A.   Confidential
B.   Public
C.   Private
D.   Critical
Answer: D
Explanation:
The category of data that is most impacted when it is lost is “Critical”. Critical data is essential to the organization’s operations and often includes sensitive information such as financial records, proprietary business information, and vital operational data. The loss of critical data can severely disrupt business operations and have significant financial, legal, and reputational consequences.
– Confidential: Refers to data that must be protected from unauthorized access to maintain privacy and security.
– Public: Refers to data that is intended for public disclosure and whose loss does not have severe consequences.
– Private: Typically refers to personal data that needs to be protected to ensure privacy.
– Critical: Refers to data that is essential for the operation and survival of the organization, and its loss can have devastating impacts.
NEW QUESTION 223
After performing an assessment, an analyst wants to provide a risk rating for the findings. Which of the following concepts should most likely be considered when calculating the ratings?
A.   Owners and thresholds.
B.   Impact and likelihood.
C.   Appetite and tolerance.
D.   Probability and exposure factor.
Answer: B
Explanation:
When calculating risk ratings, the concepts of impact and likelihood are most likely to be considered. Risk assessment typically involves evaluating the potential impact of a threat (how severe the consequences would be if the threat materialized) and the likelihood of the threat occurring (how probable it is that the threat will occur).
– Impact: Measures the severity of the consequences if a particular threat exploits a vulnerability. It considers factors such as financial loss, reputational damage, and operational disruption.
– Likelihood: Measures the probability of a threat exploiting a vulnerability. This can be based on historical data, current threat landscape, and expert judgment.
NEW QUESTION 224
Which of the following should a systems administrator set up to increase the resilience of an application by splitting the traffic between two identical sites?
A.   Load balancing.
B.   Geographic disruption.
C.   Failover.
D.   Parallel processing.
Answer: A
Explanation:
To increase the resilience of an application by splitting the traffic between two identical sites, a systems administrator should set up load balancing. Load balancing distributes network or application traffic across multiple servers or sites, ensuring no single server becomes overwhelmed and enhancing the availability and reliability of applications.
– Load balancing: Distributes traffic across multiple servers to ensure high availability and reliability. It helps in managing the load efficiently and can prevent server overloads.
– Geographic disruption: Not a standard term related to resilience. This might imply the use of geographically distributed sites but isn’t the precise solution described.
– Failover: Refers to switching to a standby server or system when the primary one fails. It doesn’t inherently split traffic but rather takes over when a failure occurs.
– Parallel processing: Refers to the simultaneous processing of tasks, not specifically related to load balancing web traffic.
NEW QUESTION 225
Which of the following is most likely to be deployed to obtain and analyze attacker activity and techniques?
A.   Firewall.
B.   IDS.
C.   Honeypot.
D.   Layer 3 switch.
Answer: C
Explanation:
A honeypot is most likely to be deployed to obtain and analyze attacker activity and techniques. A honeypot is a decoy system set up to attract attackers, providing an opportunity to study their methods and behaviors in a controlled environment without risking actual systems.
– Honeypot: A decoy system designed to lure attackers, allowing administrators to observe and analyze attack patterns and techniques.
– Firewall: Primarily used to block unauthorized access to networks, not for observing attacker behavior.
– IDS (Intrusion Detection System): Detects and alerts on malicious activity but does not specifically engage attackers to observe their behavior.
– Layer 3 switch: Used for routing traffic within networks, not for analyzing attacker techniques.
NEW QUESTION 226
Which of the following would most likely mitigate the impact of an extended power outage on a company’s environment?
A.   Hot site.
B.   UPS.
C.   Snapshots.
D.   SOAR.
Answer: B
Explanation:
A UPS (Uninterruptible Power Supply) would most likely mitigate the impact of an extended power outage on a company’s environment. A UPS provides backup power and ensures that systems continue to run during short-term power outages, giving enough time to perform an orderly shutdown or switch to a longer-term power solution like a generator.
– Hot site: A fully operational offsite data center that can be used if the primary site becomes unavailable. It’s more suitable for disaster recovery rather than mitigating short-term power outages.
– UPS: Provides immediate backup power, protecting against data loss and hardware damage during power interruptions.
– Snapshots: Used for data backup and recovery, not for power outage mitigation.
– SOAR (Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response): A platform for automating security operations, not related to power outage mitigation.
NEW QUESTION 227
A security analyst is investigating an alert that was produced by endpoint protection software. The analyst determines this event was a false positive triggered by an employee who attempted to download a file. Which of the following is the most likely reason the download was blocked?
A.   A misconfiguration in the endpoint protection software.
B.   A zero-day vulnerability in the file.
C.   A supply chain attack on the endpoint protection vendor.
D.   Incorrect file permissions.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The most likely reason the download was blocked, resulting in a false positive, is a misconfiguration in the endpoint protection software. False positives occur when legitimate actions are incorrectly identified as threats due to incorrect settings or overly aggressive rules in the security software.
– Misconfiguration in the endpoint protection software: Common cause of false positives, where legitimate activities are flagged incorrectly due to improper settings.
– Zero-day vulnerability: Refers to previously unknown vulnerabilities, which are less likely to be associated with a false positive.
– Supply chain attack: Involves compromising the software supply chain, which is a broader and more severe issue than a simple download being blocked.
– Incorrect file permissions: Would prevent access to files but not typically cause an alert in endpoint protection software.
NEW QUESTION 228
An organization is required to maintain financial data records for three years and customer data for five years. Which of the following data management policies should the organization implement?
A.   Retention
B.   Destruction
C.   Inventory
D.   Certification
Answer: A
Explanation:
The organization should implement a retention policy to ensure that financial data records are kept for three years and customer data for five years. A retention policy specifies how long different types of data should be maintained and when they should be deleted.
– Retention: Ensures that data is kept for a specific period to comply with legal, regulatory, or business requirements.
– Destruction: Involves securely deleting data that is no longer needed, which is part of the retention lifecycle but not the primary focus here.
– Inventory: Involves keeping track of data assets, not specifically about how long to retain data.
– Certification: Ensures that processes and systems meet certain standards, not directly related to data retention periods.
NEW QUESTION 229
Which of the following is classified as high availability in a cloud environment?
A.   Access broker.
B.   Cloud HSM.
C.   WAF.
D.   Load balancer.
Answer: D
Explanation:
In a cloud environment, high availability is typically ensured through the use of a load balancer. A load balancer distributes network or application traffic across multiple servers, ensuring that no single server becomes overwhelmed and that services remain available even if one or more servers fail. This setup enhances the reliability and availability of applications.
– Load balancer: Ensures high availability by distributing traffic across multiple servers or instances, preventing overload and ensuring continuous availability.
– Access broker: Typically refers to a service that facilitates secure access to resources, not directly related to high availability.
– Cloud HSM (Hardware Security Module): Provides secure key management in the cloud but does not specifically ensure high availability.
– WAF (Web Application Firewall): Protects web applications by filtering and monitoring HTTP traffic but is not primarily focused on ensuring high availability.
NEW QUESTION 230
An accounting clerk sent money to an attacker’s bank account after receiving fraudulent instructions to use a new account. Which of the following would most likely prevent this activity in the future?
A.   Standardizing security incident reporting.
B.   Executing regular phishing campaigns.
C.   Implementing insider threat detection measures.
D.   Updating processes for sending wire transfers.
Answer: D
Explanation:
To prevent an accounting clerk from sending money to an attacker’s bank account due to fraudulent instructions, the most effective measure would be updating the processes for sending wire transfers. This can include implementing verification steps, such as requiring multiple approvals for changes in payment instructions and directly confirming new account details with trusted sources.
– Updating processes for sending wire transfers: Involves adding verification and approval steps to prevent fraudulent transfers.
– Standardizing security incident reporting: Important for handling incidents but not specifically focused on preventing fraudulent wire transfers.
– Executing regular phishing campaigns: Helps raise awareness but may not directly address the process vulnerability.
– Implementing insider threat detection measures: Useful for detecting malicious activities but does not directly prevent fraudulent transfer instructions.
NEW QUESTION 231
After conducting a vulnerability scan, a systems administrator notices that one of the identified vulnerabilities is not present on the systems that were scanned. Which of the following describes this example?
A.   False positive.
B.   False negative.
C.   True positive.
D.   True negative.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A false positive occurs when a vulnerability scan identifies a vulnerability that is not actually present on the systems that were scanned. This means that the scan has incorrectly flagged a system as vulnerable.
– False positive: Incorrectly identifies a vulnerability that does not exist on the scanned systems.
– False negative: Fails to identify an existing vulnerability on the system.
– True positive: Correctly identifies an existing vulnerability.
– True negative: Correctly identifies that there is no vulnerability.
NEW QUESTION 232
Which of the following best describes configuring devices to log to an off-site location for possible future reference?
A.   Log aggregation.
B.   DLP.
C.   Archiving.
D.   SCAP.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Configuring devices to log to an off-site location for possible future reference is best described as log aggregation. Log aggregation involves collecting logs from multiple sources and storing them in a centralized location, often off-site, to ensure they are preserved and can be analyzed in the future.
– Log aggregation: Centralizes log data from multiple devices, making it easier to analyze and ensuring logs are available for future reference.
– DLP (Data Loss Prevention): Focuses on preventing unauthorized data transfer and ensuring data security.
– Archiving: Involves storing data for long-term retention, which could be part of log aggregation but is broader in scope.
– SCAP (Security Content Automation Protocol): A standard for automating vulnerability management and policy compliance.
NEW QUESTION 233
Which of the following security concepts is being followed when implementing a product that offers protection against DDoS attacks?
A.   Availability
B.   Non-repudiation
C.   Integrity
D.   Confidentiality
Answer: A
Explanation:
When implementing a product that offers protection against Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attacks, the security concept being followed is availability. DDoS protection ensures that systems and services remain accessible to legitimate users even under attack, maintaining the availability of network resources.
– Availability: Ensures that systems and services are accessible when needed, which is directly addressed by DDoS protection.
– Non-repudiation: Ensures that actions or transactions cannot be denied by the involved parties, typically achieved through logging and digital signatures.
– Integrity: Ensures that data is accurate and has not been tampered with.
– Confidentiality: Ensures that information is accessible only to authorized individuals.
NEW QUESTION 234
A security analyst is reviewing the source code of an application in order to identify misconfigurations and vulnerabilities. Which of the following kinds of analysis best describes this review?
A.   Dynamic
B.   Static
C.   Gap
D.   Impact
Answer: B
Explanation:
Reviewing the source code of an application to identify misconfigurations and vulnerabilities is best described as static analysis. Static analysis involves examining the code without executing the program. It focuses on finding potential security issues, coding errors, and vulnerabilities by analyzing the code itself.
– Static analysis: Analyzes the source code or compiled code for vulnerabilities without executing the program.
– Dynamic analysis: Involves testing and evaluating the program while it is running to identify vulnerabilities.
– Gap analysis: Identifies differences between the current state and desired state, often used for compliance or process improvement.
– Impact analysis: Assesses the potential effects of changes in a system or process.
NEW QUESTION 235
Which of the following would be used to detect an employee who is emailing a customer list to a personal account before leaving the company?
A.   DLP
B.   FIM
C.   IDS
D.   EDR
Answer: A
Explanation:
To detect an employee who is emailing a customer list to a personal account before leaving the company, a Data Loss Prevention (DLP) system would be used. DLP systems are designed to detect and prevent unauthorized transmission of sensitive data.
– DLP (Data Loss Prevention): Monitors and controls data transfers to ensure sensitive information is not sent to unauthorized recipients.
– FIM (File Integrity Monitoring): Monitors changes to files to detect unauthorized modifications.
– IDS (Intrusion Detection System): Monitors network traffic for suspicious activity but does not specifically prevent data leakage.
– EDR (Endpoint Detection and Response): Monitors and responds to threats on endpoints but is not specifically focused on data leakage.
NEW QUESTION 236
Which of the following penetration testing teams is focused only on trying to compromise an organization using an attacker’s tactics?
A.   White
B.   Red
C.   Purple
D.   Blue
Answer: B
Explanation:
Red teams are focused only on trying to compromise an organization using an attacker’s tactics. They simulate real-world attacks to test the effectiveness of the organization’s security defenses and identify vulnerabilities.
– Red team: Acts as adversaries to simulate attacks and find security weaknesses.
– White team: Oversees and ensures the rules of engagement are followed during the penetration test.
– Purple team: Facilitates collaboration between the red team and the blue team to improve security.
– Blue team: Defends against attacks and responds to security incidents.
NEW QUESTION 237
A manager receives an email that contains a link to receive a refund. After hovering over the link, the manager notices that the domain’s URL points to a suspicious link. Which of the following security practices helped the manager to identify the attack?
A.   End user training.
B.   Policy review.
C.   URL scanning.
D.   Plain text email.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The security practice that helped the manager identify the suspicious link is end-user training. Training users to recognize phishing attempts and other social engineering attacks, such as hovering over links to check the actual URL, is a critical component of an organization’s security awareness program.
– End user training: Educates employees on how to identify and respond to security threats, including suspicious emails and phishing attempts.
– Policy review: Ensures that policies are understood and followed but does not directly help in identifying specific attacks.
– URL scanning: Automatically checks URLs for threats, but the manager identified the issue manually.
– Plain text email: Ensures email content is readable without executing scripts, but the identification in this case was due to user awareness.
NEW QUESTION 238
To improve the security at a data center, a security administrator implements a CCTV system and posts several signs about the possibility of being filmed. Which of the following best describe these types of controls? (Choose two.)
A.   Preventive
B.   Deterrent
C.   Corrective
D.   Directive
E.   Compensating
F.   Detective
Answer: BF
Explanation:
The CCTV system and signs about the possibility of being filmed serve as both deterrent and detective controls.
– Deterrent controls: Aim to discourage potential attackers from attempting unauthorized actions. Posting signs about CCTV serves as a deterrent by warning individuals that their actions are being monitored.
– Detective controls: Identify and record unauthorized or suspicious activity. The CCTV system itself functions as a detective control by capturing and recording footage that can be reviewed later.
– Preventive controls: Aim to prevent security incidents but are not directly addressed by the CCTV and signs in this context.
– Corrective controls: Aim to correct or mitigate the impact of a security incident.
– Directive controls: Provide guidelines or instructions but are not directly addressed by the CCTV and signs.
– Compensating controls: Provide alternative measures to compensate for the absence or failure of primary controls.
NEW QUESTION 239
During a recent breach, employee credentials were compromised when a service desk employee issued an MFA bypass code to an attacker who called and posed as an employee. Which of the following should be used to prevent this type of incident in the future?
A.   Hardware token MFA.
B.   Biometrics.
C.   Identity proofing.
D.   Least privilege.
Answer: C
Explanation:
To prevent the issuance of an MFA bypass code to an attacker posing as an employee, implementing identity proofing would be most effective. Identity proofing involves verifying the identity of individuals before granting access or providing sensitive information.
– Identity proofing: Ensures that the person requesting the MFA bypass is who they claim to be, thereby preventing social engineering attacks where attackers pose as legitimate employees.
– Hardware token MFA: Provides an additional factor for authentication but does not address verifying the requester’s identity.
– Biometrics: Offers strong authentication based on physical characteristics but is not related to the process of issuing MFA bypass codes.
– Least privilege: Limits access rights for users to the bare minimum necessary to perform their work but does not prevent social engineering attacks targeting the service desk.
NEW QUESTION 240
A systems administrator is working on a defense-in-depth strategy and needs to restrict activity from employees after hours. Which of the following should the systems administrator implement?
A.   Role-based restrictions.
B.   Attribute-based restrictions.
C.   Mandatory restrictions.
D.   Time-of-day restrictions.
Answer: D
Explanation:
To restrict activity from employees after hours, the systems administrator should implement time-of-day restrictions. This method allows access to network resources to be limited to specific times, ensuring that employees can only access systems during approved working hours. This is an effective part of a defense-in-depth strategy to mitigate risks associated with unauthorized access during off- hours, which could be a time when security monitoring might be less stringent.
– Time-of-day restrictions: These control access based on the time of day, preventing users from logging in or accessing certain systems outside of designated hours.
– Role-based restrictions: Control access based on a user’s role within the organization.
– Attribute-based restrictions: Use various attributes (such as location, department, or project) to determine access rights.
– Mandatory restrictions: Typically refer to non-discretionary access controls, such as those based on government or organizational policy.
NEW QUESTION 241
An organization maintains intellectual property that it wants to protect. Which of the following concepts would be most beneficial to add to the company’s security awareness training program?
A.   Insider threat detection.
B.   Simulated threats.
C.   Phishing awareness.
D.   Business continuity planning.
Answer: A
Explanation:
For an organization that wants to protect its intellectual property, adding insider threat detection to the security awareness training program would be most beneficial. Insider threats can be particularly dangerous because they come from trusted individuals within the organization who have legitimate access to sensitive information.
– Insider threat detection: Focuses on identifying and mitigating threats from within the organization, including employees, contractors, or business partners who might misuse their access.
– Simulated threats: Often used for testing security measures and training, but not specifically focused on protecting intellectual property.
– Phishing awareness: Important for overall security but more focused on preventing external attacks rather than internal threats.
– Business continuity planning: Ensures the organization can continue operations during and after a disruption but does not directly address protecting intellectual property from insider threats.
NEW QUESTION 242
A security engineer needs to configure an NGFW to minimize the impact of the increasing number of various traffic types during attacks. Which of the following types of rules is the engineer the most likely to configure?
A.   Signature-based
B.   Behavioral-based
C.   URL-based
D.   Agent-based
Answer: B
Explanation:
To minimize the impact of the increasing number of various traffic types during attacks, a security engineer is most likely to configure behavioral-based rules on a Next-Generation Firewall (NGFW). Behavioral-based rules analyze the behavior of traffic patterns and can detect and block unusual or malicious activity that deviates from normal behavior.
– Behavioral-based: Detects anomalies by comparing current traffic behavior to known good behavior, making it effective against various traffic types during attacks.
– Signature-based: Relies on known patterns of known threats, which might not be as effective against new or varied attack types.
– URL-based: Controls access to websites based on URL categories but is not specifically aimed at handling diverse traffic types during attacks.
– Agent-based: Typically involves software agents on endpoints to monitor and enforce policies, not directly related to NGFW rules.
NEW QUESTION 243
A security administrator identifies an application that is storing data using MD5. Which of the following best identifies the vulnerability likely present in the application?
A.   Cryptographic.
B.   Malicious update.
C.   Zero day.
D.   Side loading.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The vulnerability likely present in the application that is storing data using MD5 is a cryptographic vulnerability. MD5 is considered to be a weak hashing algorithm due to its susceptibility to collision attacks, where two different inputs produce the same hash output, compromising data integrity and security.
– Cryptographic: Refers to vulnerabilities in cryptographic algorithms or implementations, such as the weaknesses in MD5.
– Malicious update: Refers to the intentional injection of harmful updates, not related to the use of MD5.
– Zero day: Refers to previously unknown vulnerabilities for which no patch is available, not specifically related to MD5.
– Side loading: Involves installing software from unofficial sources, not directly related to the use of MD5.
NEW QUESTION 244
A company that is located in an area prone to hurricanes is developing a disaster recovery plan and looking at site considerations that allow the company to immediately continue operations. Which of the following is the best type of site for this company?
A.   Cold
B.   Tertiary
C.   Warm
D.   Hot
Answer: D
Explanation:
For a company located in an area prone to hurricanes and needing to immediately continue operations, the best type of site is a hot site. A hot site is a fully operational offsite data center that is equipped with hardware, software, and network connectivity and is ready to take over operations with minimal downtime.
– Hot site: Fully operational and can take over business operations almost immediately after a disaster.
– Cold site: A basic site with infrastructure in place but without hardware or data, requiring significant time to become operational.
– Tertiary site: Not a standard term in disaster recovery; it usually refers to an additional backup location but lacks the specifics of readiness.
– Warm site: Equipped with hardware and connectivity but requires some time and effort to become fully operational, not as immediate as a hot site.
NEW QUESTION 245
Which of the following security concepts is accomplished with the installation of a RADIUS server?
A.   CIA
B.   AAA
C.   ACL
D.   PEM
Answer: B
Explanation:
The installation of a RADIUS server (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service) is primarily associated with the security concept of AAA, which stands for Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting. RADIUS servers are used to manage user credentials and permissions centrally, ensuring that only authenticated and authorized users can access network resources, and tracking user activity for accounting purposes.
– Authentication: Verifies the identity of a user or device. When a user tries to access a network, the RADIUS server checks their credentials (username and password) against a database.
– Authorization: Determines what an authenticated user is allowed to do. After authentication, the RADIUS server grants permissions based on predefined policies.
– Accounting: Tracks the consumption of network resources by users. This involves logging session details such as the duration of connections and the amount of data transferred.
NEW QUESTION 246
A company tested and validated the effectiveness of network security appliances within the corporate network. The IDS detected a high rate of SQL injection attacks against the company’s servers, and the company’s perimeter firewall is at capacity. Which of the following would be the best action to maintain security and reduce the traffic to the perimeter firewall?
A.   Set the appliance to IPS mode and place it in front of the company firewall.
B.   Convert the firewall to a WAF and use IPSec tunnels to increase throughput.
C.   Set the firewall to fail open if it is overloaded with traffic and send alerts to the SIEM.
D.   Configure the firewall to perform deep packet inspection and monitor TLS traffic.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Given the scenario where an Intrusion Detection System (IDS) has detected a high rate of SQL injection attacks and the perimeter firewall is at capacity, the best action would be to set the appliance to Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) mode and place it in front of the company firewall. This approach has several benefits:
– Intrusion Prevention System (IPS): Unlike IDS, which only detects and alerts on malicious activity, IPS can actively block and prevent those activities. Placing an IPS in front of the firewall means it can filter out malicious traffic before it reaches the firewall, reducing the load on the firewall and enhancing overall security.
– Reducing Traffic Load: By blocking SQL injection attacks and other malicious traffic before it reaches the firewall, the IPS helps maintain the firewall’s performance and prevents it from becoming a bottleneck.
– Enhanced Security: The IPS provides an additional layer of defense, identifying and mitigating threats in real-time.
NEW QUESTION 247
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