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NEW QUESTION 1
A social networking company operates globally. Some users from Brazil and Argentina are reporting the following error: website address was not found. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this outage?
A.   Client DNS misconfigutation.
B.   Regional DNS provider outage.
C.   DNS server misconfiguration.
D.   DNS propagation issues.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The most likely cause of the outage, with users from specific regions like Brazil and Argentina reporting an error that the website address was not found, is a regional DNS provider outage. This type of outage would affect users in particular areas, preventing domain name resolution and leading to the reported error.
NEW QUESTION 2
A critical security patch is required on a network load balancer in a public cloud. The organization has a major sales conference next week, and the Chief Executive Officer does not want any interruptions during the demonstration of an application behind the load balancer. Which of the following approaches should the cloud security engineer take?
A.   Ask the management team to delay the conference.
B.   Apply the security patch after the event.
C.   Ask the upper management team to approve an emergency patch window.
D.   Apply the security patch immediately before the conference.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Given the critical nature of the patch and the upcoming major sales conference, the cloud security engineer should seek approval for an emergency patch window. This approach balances the need for security with the business requirement of no interruptions during the conference.
NEW QUESTION 3
A cloud engineer was deploying the company’s payment processing application, but it failed with the following error log:
“ERFOR:root: Transaction failed http 429 response, please try again”
Which of the following are the most likely causes for this error? (Choose two.)
A.   API throttling.
B.   API gateway outage.
C.   Web server outage.
D.   Oversubscription.
E.   Unauthorized access.
F.   Insufficient quota.
Answer: AF
Explanation:
The error “http 429 response, please try again” typically indicates API throttling, where the number of requests exceeds the rate limit set by the API provider, and insufficient quota, where the allowed number of API calls within a given timeframe has been exceeded.
NEW QUESTION 4
Which of the following is an auditing procedure that ensures service providers securely manage the data to protect the interests of the organization and the privacy of its clients?
A.   CIS
B.   ITIL
C.   SOC2
D.   ISO 27001
Answer: C
Explanation:
SOC2 (Service Organization Control 2) is an auditing procedure that ensures service providers securely manage data to protect the interests of an organization and the privacy of its clients. SOC2 is specifically designed for service providers storing customer data in the cloud, making it pertinent for data management and privacy.
NEW QUESTION 5
A security analyst confirms a zero-day vulnerability was exploited by hackers who gained access to confidential customer data and installed ransomware on the server Which of the following steps should the security analyst take? (Choose two.)
A.   Contact the customers to inform them about the data breach.
B.   Contact the hackers to negotiate payment lo unlock the server.
C.   Send a global communication to inform all impacted users.
D.   Inform the management and legal teams about the data breach.
E.   Delete confidential data used on other servers that might be compromised.
F.   Modify the firewall rules to block the IP addresses and update the ports.
Answer: AD
Explanation:
After a zero-day exploit resulting in a data breach and ransomware installation, it is critical to inform affected customers about the breach and the potential impact on their data. Additionally, the management and legal teams should be notified to handle the situation in compliance with regulatory requirements and to coordinate an appropriate response.
NEW QUESTION 6
Which of the following requirements are core considerations when migrating a small business’s on- premises applications to the cloud? (Choose two.)
A.   Availability
B.   Hybrid
C.   Testing
D.   Networking
E.   Compute
F.   Logs
Answer: AD
Explanation:
When migrating on-premises applications to the cloud for a small business, availability and networking are core considerations. Ensuring that applications are available and that the network is capable of handling the new cloud traffic are pivotal for a successful transition.
NEW QUESTION 7
An organization needs to retain its data for compliance reasons but only when required. Which of the following would be the most cost-effective type of tiered storage?
A.   Warm
B.   Hot
C.   Archive
D.   Cold
Answer: C
Explanation:
Archive storage is the most cost-effective type of tiered storage for retaining data that is infrequently accessed and only when required for compliance reasons. It is designed for long-term storage and offers lower storage costs compared to hot, cold, or warm storage tiers.
NEW QUESTION 8
A cloud administrator shortens the amount of time a backup runs. An executive in the company requires a guarantee that the backups can be restored with no data loss. Which of th following backup features should the administrator lest for?
A.   Encryption
B.   Retention
C.   Schedule
D.   Integrity
Answer: D
Explanation:
To guarantee that backups can be restored with no data loss, the administrator should test for data integrity. This ensures that the data has not been altered during the backup process and that it can be restored to its original state.
NEW QUESTION 9
A software engineer at a cybersecurity company wants to access the cloud environment. Per company policy, the cloud environment should not be directly accessible via the internet. Which of the following options best describes how the software engineer can access the cloud resources?
A.   SSH.
B.   Bastion host.
C.   Token-based access.
D.   Web portal.
Answer: B
Explanation:
A bastion host is the best option described for accessing cloud resources without direct internet access. It acts as a secure gateway to access internal networks from external sources and is often used in conjunction with other security measures such as SSH for secure connections.
NEW QUESTION 10
Given the following command:
Sdocker pull images.comptia.org/user1/myimage:latest
Which of the following correctly identifies images.comptia.org?
A.   Image registry.
B.   Image creator.
C.   Image version.
D.   Image name.
Answer: A
Explanation:
In the Docker pull command given, images.comptia.org represents the image registry. A Docker image registry is a collection of repositories that host Docker images. It is where images are stored and organized, and from where they can be pulled for deployment.
NEW QUESTION 11
Which of the following are best practices when working with a source control system? (Choose two.)
A.   Merging code often.
B.   Pushing code directly to production.
C.   Performing code deployment.
D.   Maintaining one branch for all features.
E.   Committing code often.
F.   Initiating a pull request.
Answer: AE
Explanation:
Best practices when working with a source control system include merging code often to ensure that changes from different team members are integrated regularly, reducing integration issues. Committing code often is also recommended to save small changes frequently, which helps in tracking changes and resolving issues more effectively.
NEW QUESTION 12
A government agency in the public sector is considering a migration from on premises to the cloud. Which of the following are the most important considerations for this cloud migration? (Choose two.)
A.   Compliance.
B.   laaS v.s. SaaS.
C.   Firewall capabilities.
D.   Regulatory.
E.   Implementation timeline.
F.   Service availability.
Answer: AD
Explanation:
For a government agency considering cloud migration, compliance and regulatory considerations are of utmost importance. The agency must ensure that the migration aligns with legal requirements, industry standards, and government regulations specific to the public sector.
NEW QUESTION 13
A company recently migrated to a public cloud provider. The company’s computer incident response team needs to configure native cloud services tor detailed logging. Which of the following should the team implement on each cloud service to support root cause analysis of past events? (Choose two.)
A.   Log retention.
B.   Tracing.
C.   Log aggregation.
D.   Log rotation.
E.   Hashing.
F.   Encryption.
Answer: AC
Explanation:
For detailed logging to support root cause analysis of past events, the team should implement log retention to ensure logs are kept for the necessary amount of time and log aggregation to compile logs from various sources for easier analysis and correlation.
NEW QUESTION 14
A software engineer needs to transfer data over the internet using programmatic access while also being able to query the data. Which of the following will best help the engineer to complete this task?
A.   SQL.
B.   Web sockets.
C.   RPC.
D.   GraphQL.
Answer: D
Explanation:
GraphQL is the best option for transferring data over the internet with programmatic access and querying capabilities. It is a query language for APIs and a runtime for executing those queries with existing data, providing a more efficient, powerful, and flexible alternative to the REST API.
NEW QUESTION 15
An organization’s security policy states that software applications should not exchange sensitive data in cleartext. The security analyst is concerned about a software application that uses Base64 to encode credit card data. Which of the following would be the best algorithm to replace Base64?
A.   3DES
B.   AES
C.   RC4
D.   SHA-3
Answer: B
Explanation:
AES (Advanced Encryption Standard) is the best algorithm to replace Base64 for secure data exchange. Base64 is an encoding method that is not secure by itself, as it’s easily reversible. AES, on the other hand, is a widely used encryption standard that ensures data is protected and is not readable without the correct encryption key.
NEW QUESTION 16
A banking firm’s cloud server will be decommissioned after a successful proof of concept using mirrored data. Which of the following is the best action to take regarding the storage used on the decommissioned server?
A.   Keep it temporarily.
B.   Archive it.
C.   Delete it.
D.   Retain it permanently.
Answer: B
Explanation:
When a cloud server is decommissioned after a proof of concept, the best action to take regarding the storage used on the server is to archive it. Archiving ensures that the data is kept in a less accessible but secure storage service, which may be required for regulatory or compliance reasons, especially for a banking firm.
NEW QUESTION 17
A CI/CD pipeline is used to deploy VMs to an laaS environment. Which of the following can be used to harden the operating system once the VM is running?
A.   Docker
B.   Kubernetes
C.   Git
D.   Ansible
Answer: D
Explanation:
Ansible can be used to harden the operating system once the VM is running. It is an automation tool that can configure systems, deploy software, and orchestrate more advanced IT tasks such as continuous deployments or zero downtime rolling updates.
NEW QUESTION 18
Which of the following network protocols is generally used in a NAS environment?
A.   BGP
B.   RDP
C.   TCP/IP
D.   iSCSI
Answer: C
Explanation:
The network protocol generally used in a NAS (Network Attached Storage) environment is TCP/IP (Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol). NAS devices are accessed over a network rather than being directly connected to the computer, and they utilize the TCP/IP protocol to enable this network communication.
NEW QUESTION 19
An IT security team wants to ensure that the correct parties are informed when a specific user account is signed in. Which of the following would most likely allow an administrator to address this concern?
A.   Creating an alert based on user sign-in criteria.
B.   Aggregating user sign-in logs from all systems.
C.   Enabling the collection of user sign-in logs.
D.   Configuring the retention of all sign-in logs.
Answer: A
Explanation:
To ensure that the correct parties are informed when a specific user account is signed in, the best action is to create an alert based on user sign-in criteria. This alert can notify administrators or security personnel when the specified event occurs.
NEW QUESTION 20
A cloud engineer is reviewing a disaster recovery plan that includes the following requirements:
– System state, files, and configurations must be backed up on a weekly basis.
– The system state, file, and configuration backups must be tested annually.
Which of the following backup methods should the engineer implement for the first week the plan is executed?
A.   Differential
B.   Incremental
C.   Snapshot
D.   Full
Answer: D
Explanation:
A full backup method should be implemented for the first week the disaster recovery plan is executed. This will ensure that a complete copy of the system state, files, and configurations are backed up. Subsequent backups can be differential or incremental as per the plan.
NEW QUESTION 21
A company wants to build its new platform using a public cloud. The workload requirements include the following:
– Implementation of custom CIS compliance.
– Patch for vulnerabilities within 24 hours.
– Warrant at least 1,800 IOPS per volume.
Which of the following meets the requirements?
A.   SaaS
B.   laaS
C.   FaaS
D.   PaaS
Answer: B
Explanation:
Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) provides the most flexibility among cloud service models, allowing for the implementation of custom security and compliance standards, such as CIS compliance. IaaS environments offer control over the infrastructure, enabling patch management within specific time frames. Additionally, IaaS providers typically offer configurable storage options, including the ability to specify IOPS (Input/Output Operations Per Second) per volume to meet performance requirements.
NEW QUESTION 22
A cloud administrator is building a company-standard VM image, which will be based on a public image. Which of the following should the administrator implement to secure the image?
A.   ACLs.
B.   Least privilege.
C.   Hardening.
D.   Vulnerability scanning.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Hardening a VM image involves implementing security measures to reduce vulnerabilities and protect against threats. This process includes removing unnecessary software, services, and permissions, ensuring that the remaining software is updated with the latest security patches, and configuring settings to enhance security. Starting with a public image, the administrator should apply hardening techniques to ensure the custom company-standard VM image is secure and resilient against attacks.
NEW QUESTION 23
Which of the following will best reduce the cost of running workloads while maintaining the same performance? (Choose two.)
A.   Instance size.
B.   Tagging.
C.   Reserved resources model.
D.   Spot instance model.
E.   Pay-as-you-go model.
F.   Dedicated host model.
Answer: CD
Explanation:
The Reserved resources model offers cost savings for committed use over a long term, which can reduce costs while maintaining performance for predictable workloads. The Spot instance model allows users to take advantage of unused capacity at lower prices, offering significant cost savings, though with the possibility of instances being terminated when demand rises. Both models can be strategically used to optimize costs without compromising performance.
NEW QUESTION 24
A cloud engineer is troubleshooting an application that consumes multiple third-party REST APIs. The application is randomly expenenang high latency. Which of the following would best help determine the source of the latency?
A.   Configuring centralized logging to analyze HTTP requests.
B.   Running a flow log on the network to analyze the packets.
C.   Configuring an API gateway to track all incoming requests.
D.   Enabling tracing to detect HTTP response times and codes.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Enabling tracing in the application can help determine the source of high latency by providing detailed information on HTTP request and response times, as well as response codes. This can identify which API calls are experiencing delays and contribute to overall application latency, allowing for targeted troubleshooting and optimization.
NEW QUESTION 25
Which of the following integration systems would best reduce unnecessary network traffic by allowing data to travel bidirectionally and facilitating real-time results for developers who need to display critical information within applications?
A.   REST API.
B.   RPC.
C.   GraphQL.
D.   Web sockets.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Web sockets provide a full-duplex communication channel over a single, long-lived connection, allowing data to flow bidirectionally between a client and a server. This is ideal for real-time applications where developers need to display critical information without unnecessary network overhead, as it reduces the need for repetitive HTTP requests and allows for more efficient, instantaneous data updates and interactions.
NEW QUESTION 26
Which of the following vulnerability management concepts is best defined as the process of discovering vulnerabilities?
A.   Scanning
B.   Assessment
C.   Remediation
D.   Identification
Answer: D
Explanation:
In vulnerability management, ‘Identification’ is the concept best defined as the process of discovering vulnerabilities. This step is crucial as it involves detecting vulnerabilities in systems, software, and networks, which is the first step in the vulnerability management process before moving on to assessment, remediation, and reporting.
NEW QUESTION 27
A cloud engineer wants to implement a disaster recovery strategy that:
– Is cost-effective.
– Reduces the amount of data loss in case of a disaster.
– Enables recovery with the least amount of downtime.
Which of the following disaster recovery strategies best describes what the cloud engineer wants to achieve?
A.   Cold site.
B.   Off site.
C.   Warm site.
D.   Hot site.
Answer: D
Explanation:
A hot site is a disaster recovery strategy that is cost-effective, minimizes data loss, and allows for the fastest recovery time in case of a disaster. It is an exact replica of the original site of the organization, with full computer systems as well as near-complete backups of user data. Hot sites are operational 24/7 and can take over functionality from the primary site immediately or with minimal delay.
NEW QUESTION 28
Which of the following cloud deployment models is the best way to replicate a workload non- disruptively between on-premises servers and a public cloud?
A.   Public
B.   Community
C.   Private
D.   Hybrid
Answer: D
Explanation:
A hybrid cloud deployment model is the best way to replicate workloads non-disruptively between on-premises servers and a public cloud. This model integrates on-premises infrastructure, or private clouds with public clouds, allowing data and applications to be shared between them.
NEW QUESTION 29
Which of the following is true of SSDs?
A.   SSDs do not have self-encrypting capabilities.
B.   SSDs have small storage capacities.
C.   SSDs can be used for high-IOP applications.
D.   SSDs are used mostly in cold storage.
Answer: C
Explanation:
SSDs (Solid State Drives) are known for their high performance and can handle a high number of input/output operations per second (IOPS). This makes them ideal for applications and workloads that require rapid access to storage, such as databases and high-performance computing applications.
NEW QUESTION 30
A video surveillance system records road incidents and stores the videos locally before uploading them to the cloud and deleting them from local storage. Which of the following best describes the nature of the local storage?
A.   Persistent
B.   Ephemeral
C.   Differential
D.   Incremental
Answer: B
Explanation:
The nature of the local storage in a video surveillance system that records road incidents and stores the videos locally before uploading them to the cloud and deleting them from local storage is ephemeral. Ephemeral storage is temporary and is designed to provide short-term storage for information that changes frequently or is not meant to be persistent.
NEW QUESTION 31
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