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NEW QUESTION 206
An e-commerce store is preparing for an annual holiday sale. Previously, this sale has increased the number of transactions between two and ten times the normal level of transactions. A cloud administrator wants to implement a process to scale the web server seamlessly. The goal is to automate changes only when necessary and with minimal cost. Which of the following scaling approaches should the administrator use?
A.   Scale horizontally with additional web servers to provide redundancy.
B.   Allow the load to trigger adjustments to the resources.
C.   When traffic increases, adjust the resources using the cloud portal.
D.   Schedule the environment to scale resources before the sale begins.
Answer: B
Explanation:
To seamlessly scale the web server for an e-commerce store during an annual sale, it’s best to allow the load to trigger adjustments to the resources. This approach uses autoscaling to automatically adjust the number of active servers based on the current load, ensuring an automated change that is cost-effective.
NEW QUESTION 207
An organization has been using an old version of an Apache Log4j software component in its critical software application. Which of the following should the organization use to calculate the severity of the risk from using this component?
A.   CWE
B.   CVSS
C.   CWSS
D.   CVE
Answer: B
Explanation:
The Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) is what the organization should use to calculate the severity of the risk from using an old version of Apache Log4j software component. CVSS provides an open framework for communicating the characteristics and impacts of IT vulnerabilities.
NEW QUESTION 208
Which of the following container storage types loses data after a restart?
A.   Object.
B.   Persistent volume.
C.   Ephemeral.
D.   Block.
Answer: C
Explanation:
In the context of container storage, ephemeral storage types are designed to be temporary, losing their data when the container is restarted or deleted. This is in contrast to persistent volumes, which retain data across container restarts and lifecycle, and object and block storage, which are used for specific types of data storage but not inherently temporary. Ephemeral storage is often used for temporary computation data, caching, or any data that doesn’t need to persist beyond the lifecycle of the container instance.
NEW QUESTION 209
Which of the following is a customer be responsible for in a provider-managed database service? (Choose two.)
A.   Operating system patches.
B.   Table-level permissions.
C.   Minor database engine updates.
D.   Cluster configuration.
E.   Row-level encryption.
F.   Availability of hardware for scaling.
Answer: BE
Explanation:
In a provider-managed database service, the cloud provider typically manages the infrastructure, operating system, and database engine updates. However, the customer is responsible for the data and its security within the database, which includes setting table-level permissions and row-level encryption to ensure that data access and security is managed appropriately.
NEW QUESTION 210
Which of the following describes what CRUD is typically used for?
A.   Relational databases.
B.   Time series databases.
C.   Graph databases.
D.   NoSQL databases.
Answer: A
Explanation:
CRUD stands for Create, Read, Update, Delete, and it is most commonly used for interacting with relational databases. These operations form the basis of persistent storage manipulation in most applications that use a database to store data.
NEW QUESTION 211
A company recently set up a CDN for its photography and image-sharing website. Which of the following is the most likely reason for the company’s action?
A.   To eliminate storage costs.
B.   To improve site speed.
C.   To enhance security of static assets.
D.   To prevent unauthorized access.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The most likely reason for setting up a Content Delivery Network (CDN) is to improve site speed, especially for a photography and image-sharing website. CDNs cache content at edge locations closer to end-users, significantly reducing load times for static assets like images and videos. This enhancement in speed can improve user experience and site performance.
NEW QUESTION 212
Which of the following storage resources provides higher availability and speed for currently used files?
A.   Warm/HDD
B.   Cold/SSD
C.   Hot/SSD
D.   Archive/HDD
Answer: C
Explanation:
Hot storage using Solid State Drives (SSD) is designed for data that needs to be accessed frequently and quickly. SSDs provide faster access times compared to HDDs, making them suitable for high- availability and speed-critical files, such as those currently in use or requiring rapid access.
NEW QUESTION 213
A DevOps engineer is integrating multiple systems. Each system has its own API that exchanges data based on different application-level transactions. Which of the following delivery mechanisms would best support this integration?
A.   Enterprise Service Bus (ESB)
B.   Socket
C.   RPC
D.   Queue
Answer: A
Explanation:
An Enterprise Service Bus (ESB) is designed to facilitate application integration by providing a centralized architecture for high-level, message-based, and event-driven communication between different systems. It is particularly well-suited for integrating multiple systems with their own APIs because it can handle various data formats and protocols, enabling different applications to communicate with each other seamlessly.
NEW QUESTION 214
A cloud consultant needs to modernize a legacy application that can no longer address user demand and is expensive to maintain. Which of the following is the best migration strategy?
A.   Retain
B.   Rehost
C.   Refactor
D.   Replatform
Answer: C
Explanation:
Refactoring is the process of restructuring existing computer code without changing its external behavior. In cloud computing, it often means modifying the application to better leverage cloud- native features and services. This can address user demand and reduce maintenance costs by making the application more scalable, resilient, and manageable.
NEW QUESTION 215
Which of the following industry standards mentions that credit card data must not be exchanged or stored in cleartext?
A.   CSA
B.   GDPR
C.   SOC2
D.   PCI-DSS
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI-DSS) is the industry standard that mandates that credit card data must not be stored or transmitted in cleartext. It includes requirements for encryption, access control, and other security measures to protect cardholder data.
NEW QUESTION 216
Which of the following compute resources is the most optimal for running a single scripted task on a schedule?
A.   Bare-metal server.
B.   Managed container.
C.   Virtual machine.
D.   Serverless function.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Serverless functions are ideal for running scripted tasks on a schedule because they can be triggered by events, run the task, and then shut down, incurring costs only for the actual compute time used. This eliminates the need for a continuously running server and is optimal for sporadic or scheduled tasks.
NEW QUESTION 217
A cloud deployment uses three different VPCs. The subnets on each VPC need to communicate with the others over private channels. Which of the following will achieve this objective?
A.   Deploying a load balancer to send traffic to the private IP addresses.
B.   Creating peering connections between all VPCs.
C.   Adding BGP routes using the VPCs’ private IP addresses.
D.   Establishing identical routing tables on all VPCs.
Answer: B
Explanation:
To allow subnets on different VPCs to communicate with each other over private channels, the cloud engineer should create peering connections between all the VPCs. VPC Peering allows networks to connect and route traffic using private IP addresses without the need for gateways, VPN connections, or separate physical hardware.
NEW QUESTION 218
Which of the following best describes a system that keeps all different versions of a software separate from each other while giving access to all of the versions?
A.   Code documentation.
B.   Code control.
C.   Code repository.
D.   Code versioning.
Answer: D
Explanation:
A system that keeps all different versions of software separate from each other while providing access to all of the versions is best described by Code versioning. Code versioning systems, such as Git, allow developers to keep track of changes, revert to previous states, and manage multiple versions of codebases.
NEW QUESTION 219
An administrator receives a ticket indicating the accounting application is not working. Which of the following should the administrator check FIRST?
A.   DHCP.
B.   Service-level agreement.
C.   DNS.
D.   System logs.
Answer: D
Explanation:
System logs are a record of events that occur on a system. They can be used to track down the cause of problems. In this case, the administrator should check the system logs for any errors or warnings that might be related to the accounting application.
NEW QUESTION 220
A company is considering consolidating a number of physical machines into a virtual infrastructure that will be located at its main office. The company has the following requirements:
– High-performance VMs.
– More secure.
– Has system independence.
Which of the following is the BEST platform for the company to use?
A.   Type 1 hypervisor.
B.   Type 2 hypervisor.
C.   Software application virtualization.
D.   Remote dedicated hosting.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Type 1 hypervisor would be the BEST platform for the company to use in this scenario. Type 1 hypervisors are native hypervisors that are installed directly on the host machine’s hardware. They provide high-performance virtualization, better security, and greater system independence, making them a better option than Type 2 hypervisors, software application virtualization, or remote dedicated hosting.
NEW QUESTION 221
A systems administrator wants the VMs on the hypervisor to share CPU resources on the same core when feasible. Which of the following will BEST achieve this goal?
A.   Configure CPU passthrough.
B.   Oversubscribe CPU resources.
C.   Switch from a Type 1 to a Type 2 hypervisor.
D.   Increase instructions per cycle.
E.   Enable simultaneous multithreading.
Answer: E
Explanation:
Simultaneous multithreading (SMT) is a technique that allows a single CPU core to execute multiple threads simultaneously. This can improve the performance of VMs by allowing them to share CPU resources on the same core.
NEW QUESTION 222
A company recently subscribed to a SaaS collaboration service for its business users. The company also has an on-premises collaboration solution and would like users to have a seamless experience regardless of the collaboration solution being used. Which of the following should the administrator implement?
A.   LDAP
B.   WAF
C.   VDI
D.   SSO
Answer: D
Explanation:
Single sign-on (SSO) is a system that allows users to authenticate once and gain access to multiple applications without having to re-authenticate for each application. This can help to improve the user experience by making it easier and faster for users to access the applications that they need. In this scenario, the company wants users to have a seamless experience regardless of the collaboration solution being used. SSO can help to achieve this by allowing users to authenticate once and gain access to both the SaaS collaboration service and the on-premises collaboration solution.
NEW QUESTION 223
A technician is trying to delete six decommissioned VMs. Four VMs were deleted without issue. However, two of the VMs cannot be deleted due to an error. Which of the following would MOST likely enable the technician to delete the VMs?
A.   Remove the snapshots.
B.   Remove the VMs’ IP addresses.
C.   Remove the VMs from the resource group.
D.   Remove the lock from the two VMs.
Answer: D
Explanation:
When a VM is locked, it cannot be deleted. The lock can be placed by a user or by a system process. To delete a locked VM, the lock must be removed.
NEW QUESTION 224
A systems administrator is securing a new email system for a large corporation. The administrator wants to ensure private corporate information is not emailed to external users. Which of the following would be MOST useful to accomplish this task?
A.   DLP
B.   EDR
C.   DNSSEC
D.   SPF
Answer: A
Explanation:
DLP is a set of tools and techniques that helps prevent sensitive data from being disclosed, stolen, or lost. It works by monitoring and controlling the flow of data in and out of an application, identifying sensitive data based on predefined rules, and taking action to prevent unauthorized access or transmission of the data.
NEW QUESTION 225
Once a year, a company’s private cloud experiences increased activity. The company has a disaster recovery site that is hosted in a public cloud. To avoid investment in additional hardware, which of the following actions would BEST address this issue?
A.   Configure cloud bursting to spin up new VMs automatically and terminate them when usage is back to normal.
B.   Activate the disaster recovery site, and deactivate it when usage is back to normal.
C.   Create a new backup site and decommission it when usage is back to normal.
D.   Manually add memory and CPU to existing VMs, and remove them when usage is back to normal.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Cloud bursting is a technique that allows you to automatically scale your cloud resources up or down based on demand. This can be a cost-effective way to address spikes in traffic or workload, without having to invest in additional hardware. In this case, the company can configure cloud bursting to automatically spin up new VMs in the public cloud when the private cloud reaches its capacity. The new VMs will be terminated when the usage is back to normal. This will allow the company to handle the increased traffic without having to invest in additional hardware.
NEW QUESTION 226
A company is preparing a hypervisor environment to implement a database cluster. One of the requirements is to share the disks between the nodes of the cluster to access the same LUN. Which of the following protocols should the company use? (Choose two.)
A.   CIFS
B.   FTP
C.   iSCSI
D.   RAID 10
E.   NFS
F.   FC
Answer: CF
Explanation:
A LUN is used by a transport protocol associated with an SCSI, iSCSI, Fibre Channel (FC) or similar interface. LUNs are central to the management of block storage arrays shared over a SAN.
NEW QUESTION 227
An administrator is securing a private cloud environment and wants to ensure only approved systems can connect to switches. Which of the following would be MOST useful to accomplish this task?
A.   VLAN
B.   NIPS
C.   WAF
D.   NAC
Answer: D
Explanation:
NAC is a security solution that helps to enforce network security policies by controlling access to network resources. It ensures that only authorized devices can access the network by validating their identity and checking their compliance with security policies.
NEW QUESTION 228
An organization is currently deploying a private cloud model. All devices should receive the time from the local environment with the least administrative effort. Which of the following ports needs to be opened to fulfill this requirement?
A.   53
B.   67
C.   123
D.   161
Answer: C
Explanation:
To ensure all devices receive the time from the local environment with the least administrative effort in a private cloud model, the organization needs to use the Network Time Protocol (NTP). NTP uses port 123, so the organization needs to open port 123 to allow NTP traffic to flow through the network. Port 53 is used for DNS traffic, port 67 is used for DHCP traffic, and port 161 is used for SNMP traffic, but they are not related to the time synchronization requirement.
NEW QUESTION 229
A system administrator has provisioned a new web server. Which of the following, in combination, form the best practice to secure the server’s OS? (Choose three.)
A.   Install TLS certificates on the server.
B.   Forward port 80 traffic to port 443.
C.   Disable TLS 1.0/1.1 and SSL.
D.   Disable password authentication.
E.   Enable SSH key access only.
F.   Provision the server in a separate VPC.
G.   Disable the superuser/administrator account.
H.   Restrict access on port 22 to the IP address of the administrator’s workstation.
Answer: ADE
Explanation:
These three measures help to secure the web server by implementing encryption and securing the authentication process. By disabling password authentication and enabling SSH key access only, the server is less vulnerable to brute-force attacks. Installing TLS certificates on the server helps to encrypt communications, preventing data interception and tampering.
NEW QUESTION 230
A cloud solutions architect needs to determine the best strategy to deploy an application environment in production, given the following requirements:
– No downtime.
– Instant switch to a new version using traffic control for all users.
Which of the following deployment strategies would be the BEST solution?
A.   Hot site.
B.   Blue-green.
C.   Canary.
D.   Rolling.
Answer: B
Explanation:
In a blue-green deployment, two identical environments are maintained, one for production (blue) and the other for the next version or release (green). All production traffic is initially directed to the blue environment, while the green environment is prepared and tested thoroughly without affecting the production environment. Once the green environment is ready, the traffic is switched instantly from the blue to the green environment using traffic control, with no downtime or impact on users.
NEW QUESTION 231
A customer is migrating applications to the cloud and wants to grant authorization based on the classification levels of each system. Which of the following should the customer implement to ensure authorisation to systems is granted when the user and system classification properties match? (Choose two.)
A.   Resource tagging.
B.   Discretionary access control.
C.   Multifactor authentication.
D.   Role-based access control.
E.   Token-based authentication.
F.   Bastion host.
Answer: BD
Explanation:
Discretionary Access Control (DAC) and Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) are effective methods for granting authorization based on system classification levels. DAC allows resource owners to grant access rights, making it flexible for environments with varying classification levels. RBAC assigns permissions based on roles within an organization, aligning access rights with the user’s job functions and ensuring that users access only what is necessary for their role, which can be mapped to system classifications.
NEW QUESTION 232
A network administrator is budding a site-to-site VPN tunnel from the company’s headquarters office 10 the company’s public cloud development network. The network administrator confirms the following:
– The VPN tunnel is established on the headquarter office firewall. While inside the office, developers report that they cannot connect to the development network resources.
– While outside the office on a client VPN, developers report that they can connect to the development network resources.
– The office and the client VPN have different IP subnet ranges. The firewall flow logs show VPN traffic is reaching the development network from the office.
Which of the following is the next step the next network administrator should take to troubleshoot the VPN tunnel?
A.   Review the development network routing table.
B.   Change the ciphers on the site-to-site VPN.
C.   Restart the site-to-site VPN tunnel.
D.   Check the ACLS on the development workloads.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The next step in troubleshooting the VPN tunnel issue is to review the development network routing table. This action will help determine if the routing configurations are correctly directing traffic from the headquarters office through the VPN tunnel to the development network resources. Proper routing ensures that data packets find their way to the correct destination within the cloud environment, which is critical for establishing successful communication between different network segments.
NEW QUESTION 233
A cross-site request forgery vulnerability exploited a web application that was hosted in a public laaS network. A security engineer determined that deploying a WAF in blocking mode at a CDN would prevent the application from being exploited again. However, a week after implementing the WAF, the application was exploited again. Which of the following should the security engineer do to make the WAF control effective?
A.   Configure the DDoS protection on the CDN.
B.   Install endpoint protection software on the VMs.
C.   Add an ACL to the VM subnet.
D.   Deploy an IDS on the laaS network.
Answer: C
Explanation:
After a WAF deployment fails to prevent an exploit, adding an Access Control List (ACL) to the Virtual Machine (VM) subnet can be an effective control. ACLs provide an additional layer of security by explicitly defining which traffic can or cannot enter a network segment. By setting granular rules based on IP addresses, protocols, and ports, ACLs help to restrict access to resources, thereby mitigating potential exploits and enhancing the security of the IaaS network.
NEW QUESTION 234
A systems administrator is provisioning VMs according to the following requirements:
– A VM instance needs to be present in at least two data centers.
– During replication, the application hosted on the VM tolerates a maximum latency of one second.
– When a VM is unavailable, failover must be immediate.
Which of the following replication methods will best meet these requirements?
A.   Snapshot
B.   Transactional
C.   Live
D.   Point-in-time
Answer: C
Explanation:
Live replication is the process of continuously copying data in real-time to ensure that an exact copy is available in another location. Given the requirement for immediate failover and the presence of the VM instance in at least two data centers, live replication is the best method to meet the one-second maximum latency tolerance and ensure immediate availability in the event of a VM becoming unavailable.
NEW QUESTION 235
Which of the following network types allows the addition of new features through the use of network function virtualization?
A.   Local area network.
B.   Wide area network.
C.   Storage area network.
D.   Software-defined network.
Answer: D
Explanation:
A Software-Defined Network (SDN) is a network approach that allows the addition of new features through software configurations rather than hardware updates, making use of network function virtualization (NFV). NFV decouples network functions from proprietary hardware appliances, so they can run in software, which aligns with the flexibility offered by SDN.
NEW QUESTION 236
Which of the following migration types is best to use when migrating a highly available application, which is normally hosted on a local VM cluster, for usage with an external user population?
A.   Cloud to on-premises.
B.   Cloud to cloud.
C.   On-premises to cloud.
D.   On-premises to on-premises.
Answer: C
Explanation:
When migrating a highly available application normally hosted on a local VM cluster for usage with an external user population, the best migration type would be on-premises to cloud. This allows the application to leverage the cloud’s scalability and reach, providing better access to the external users.
NEW QUESTION 237
A cloud administrator needs to collect process-level, memory-usage tracking for the virtual machines that are part of an autoscaling group. Which of the following is the best way to accomplish the goal by using cloud-native monitoring services?
A.   Configuring page file/swap metrics.
B.   Deploying the cloud-monitoring agent software.
C.   Scheduling a script to collect the data.
D.   Enabling memory monitoring in the VM configuration.
Answer: B
Explanation:
To collect process-level, memory-usage tracking for virtual machines, deploying cloud-monitoring agent software is the best approach. The agent can gather detailed system metrics and send them to the cloud-native monitoring services for analysis and visualization.
NEW QUESTION 238
A manager wants information about which users signed in to a certain VM during the past month. Which of the following can the cloud administrator use to obtain this information?
A.   Retention
B.   Alerting
C.   Aggregation
D.   Collection
Answer: D
Explanation:
To obtain information about which users signed in to a certain VM during the past month, a cloud administrator can use log collection. Log collection involves gathering and storing logs from various sources, including VMs, to provide historical data on system access and activity, which can then be analyzed to identify user login instances.
NEW QUESTION 239
A company wants to optimize cloud resources and lower the overhead caused by managing multiple operating systems. Which of the following compute resources would be best to help to achieve this goal?
A.   VM.
B.   Containers.
C.   Remote desktops.
D.   Bare-metal servers.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Containers are the best compute resources to optimize cloud resources and lower the overhead caused by managing multiple operating systems. Containers encapsulate applications and their dependencies into a single executable package, running on a shared OS kernel, which reduces the need for separate operating systems for each application and simplifies resource management.
NEW QUESTION 240
A healthcare organization must follow strict compliance requirements to ensure that Pll is not leaked. The cloud administrator needs to ensure the cloud email system can support this requirement Which of the following should the organization enable?
A.   IPS
B.   OLP
C.   ACL
D.   WAF
Answer: B
Explanation:
To ensure that Personally Identifiable Information (PII) is not leaked and to comply with strict healthcare regulations, the organization should enable Data Loss Prevention (DLP). DLP systems are designed to detect and prevent unauthorized access or sharing of sensitive data, making them ideal for securing PII in cloud email systems and ensuring compliance with healthcare industry standards.
NEW QUESTION 241
SIMULATION 1
An e-commerce company is migrating from an on-premises private cloud environment to a public cloud IaaS environment. You are tasked with right-sizing the environment to save costs after the migration. The company’s requirements are to provide a 20% overhead above the average resource consumption, rounded up.
……
NEW QUESTION 242
SIMULATION 2
To view the entire simulation, click the X in the upper-right corner of this window. A highly regulated business is required to work remotely and the risk tolerance is very low. You are tasked with providing an identity solution to the company cloud that includes the following:
– secure connectivity that minimizes user login
– tracks user activity and monitors for anomalous activity
– requires secondary authentication
……
NEW QUESTION 243
SIMULATION 3
The QA team is testing a newly implemented clinical trial management (CTM) SaaS application that uses a business intelligence application for reporting. The UAT users were instructed to use HTTP and HTTPS. Refer to the application dataflow:
……
Welcome to choose PassLeader CV0-004 dumps for 100% passing CompTIA CV0-004 exam:Â https://www.passleader.com/cv0-004.html (262 Q&As VCE Dumps and PDF Dumps ~ Lab Simulations Available)
Also, previewing the NEWEST PassLeader CV0-004 dumps online for free on Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1XDR_VEVmT6d02VQ0pERdfL7fruetHNYC