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NEW QUESTION 282
A project manager will conduct a release on the third Friday of the month. The project manager has notified users that the application will be unavailable for eight hours. Hence, users need to save any information in advance. Which of the following is the project manager most likely conducting?
A.   Application deployment.
B.   Rollback plans.
C.   Validation checks.
D.   Maintenance window schedules.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Application deployment typically involves making a software application available for use, often involving downtime or unavailability of the application. The description of the project manager notifying users about the application being unavailable for a certain period aligns with standard practices during deployment phases. The other options, such as rollback plans, validation checks, and maintenance window schedules, although important, do not directly indicate the action of making an application available for use, as described in the scenario.
NEW QUESTION 283
A contractor attended a project meeting that was exclusively for company employees. Which of the following actions should the PM take?
A.   Escalate to vendor management.
B.   Consult the request for proposal.
C.   Review the meeting cadence.
D.   Reinforce the rules of engagement.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The rules of engagement are the guidelines and expectations that define the relationship between the contractor and the company. They may include topics such as communication, confidentiality, access, security, performance, and compliance. The project manager should reinforce the rules of engagement with the contractor to ensure that they understand and respect the boundaries and protocols of the company. This will help to avoid any potential conflicts, misunderstandings, or breaches of contract.
NEW QUESTION 284
A few weeks before a project is scheduled to be completed, the client asks to add a new feature to the product that is being developed. The project manager analyzes the project schedule and determines the feature can be implemented quite easily without affecting the completion date. Which of the following should the project manager do first?
A.   Escalate the change to the CCB.
B.   Review the requested change.
C.   Document the change recommendations.
D.   Validate the implementation of the requested change.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The project manager should review the requested change first to assess its impact, feasibility, and alignment with the project objectives and scope. Reviewing the change will help the project manager to determine if the change is necessary, beneficial, and acceptable to the stakeholders. The project manager should also consider the risks, costs, and quality implications of the change before proceeding to the next steps of the change management process.
NEW QUESTION 285
A project team is working remotely from different locations across the country. As part of a lessons-learned exercise, the project manager would like to identify the level of engagement among project team members. Which of the following would be the best tool for the project manager to use?
A.   Meeting chat.
B.   Email.
C.   Real-time survey.
D.   Whiteboard.
Answer: C
Explanation:
A real-time survey is a tool that allows the project manager to collect feedback from the project team members in an interactive and timely manner. A real-time survey can measure the level of engagement, satisfaction, motivation, and performance of the team members, as well as identify any issues, challenges, or opportunities for improvement. A real-time survey can also increase the participation and collaboration of the team members, as they can see the results and comments of their peers instantly. A real-time survey is more effective than a meeting chat, an email, or a whiteboard, as it can reach a larger and more diverse audience, provide more structured and quantitative data, and avoid distractions and interruptions.
NEW QUESTION 286
Which of the following would be best to utilize when managing communications for project teams across multiple time zones?
A.   Business collaboration tool.
B.   Email.
C.   Virtual meetings.
D.   Enterprise CMS.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A business collaboration tool is a software that enables teams to communicate, share, and create together online. A business collaboration tool can help project teams across multiple time zones to overcome the challenges of distance, time differences, and cultural diversity. A business collaboration tool can provide features such as instant messaging, video conferencing, file sharing, document editing, project management, and more. A business collaboration tool can also integrate with other applications and platforms that the project team uses. A business collaboration tool can improve the efficiency, productivity, and quality of the project team’s work.
NEW QUESTION 287
Two stakeholders, who have a history of animosity toward one another, are in disagreement during a project. The project’s timeline depends on the stakeholders accomplishing their tasks. Which of the following conflict resolution methods would be best to utilize?
A.   Smoothing
B.   Confronting
C.   Forcing
D.   Compromising
Answer: B
Explanation:
Confronting, also known as problem-solving or collaborating, is a method of conflict resolution that involves addressing the root cause of the conflict and finding a mutually beneficial solution that satisfies both parties. Confronting is the most effective method when the stakes are high and the relationship is important, as it can lead to increased trust, respect, and cooperation. Confronting requires open communication, active listening, empathy, and creativity from both parties. Confronting is the best method to use in this scenario, as it can help the stakeholders overcome their personal animosity, focus on their common goals, and work together to complete their tasks on time.
NEW QUESTION 288
A new junior PM who has ownership of a project does not understand how to manage conflicts involving multiple personalities. Which of the following is the best order of the stages the PM should follow to nurture the team to high performance?
A.   Forming, storming, performing, norming, adjourning.
B.   Forming, performing, storming, norming, adjourning.
C.   Forming, norming, storming, performing, adjourning.
D.   Forming, storming, norming, performing, adjourning.
Answer: D
Explanation:
This is the correct order of the stages of team development according to Tuckman’s model. The forming stage is where team members first meet and get acquainted. The storming stage is where team members experience conflicts and disagreements. The norming stage is where team members resolve their differences and establish norms and rules. The performing stage is where team members work together effectively and efficiently. The adjourning stage is where team members complete the project and celebrate their achievements.
NEW QUESTION 289
Which of the following factors would be impacted the most by requirements for a project to implement an air quality control system at a coal plant?
A.   Social
B.   Regulatory
C.   Environmental
D.   Governmental
Answer: C
Explanation:
The environmental factor would be impacted the most by requirements for a project to implement an air quality control system at a coal plant. This is because coal combustion produces various air pollutants, such as particulate matter (PM), sulfur dioxide (SO2), nitrogen oxides (NOx), carbon dioxide (CO2), and mercury, that can harm human health and the environment. An air quality control system can reduce the emissions of these pollutants by using different technologies, such as low NOx burners, flue gas desulfurization, electrostatic precipitators, and carbon capture and storage. However, these technologies also have environmental impacts, such as water consumption, waste generation, energy consumption, and greenhouse gas emissions. Therefore, the project manager should consider the environmental factor in terms of the project scope, objectives, constraints, risks, and stakeholders, and evaluate the trade-offs and benefits of different air quality control options.
NEW QUESTION 290
A global franchise requests that a company provide a solution to unify its operation worldwide. Additionally, the company would like the solution to provide operation reports in real time without asking the country franchise manager for these reports. Which of the following cloud models would the company suggest to the global franchise?
A.   laaS
B.   XaaS
C.   PaaS
D.   SaaS
Answer: D
Explanation:
SaaS, or Software as a Service, is a type of cloud computing that provides ready-to-use software applications over the internet. The software is hosted and managed by the service provider, and the users do not have to install, update, or maintain it. SaaS is suitable for the global franchise because it can provide a unified solution that can be accessed from anywhere, anytime, and on any device. SaaS can also provide real-time operation reports without requiring the intervention of the country franchise managers. SaaS can offer benefits such as scalability, flexibility, cost-effectiveness, and security for the global franchise.
NEW QUESTION 291
A project sponsor would like to develop a minimum viable product, but the requirements are not well defined. Which of the following should the project sponsor use?
A.   Rational Unified Process
B.   Waterfall
C.   Agile
D.   DevOps
Answer: C
Explanation:
Agile is a methodology that emphasizes iterative and incremental development, customer collaboration, and responsiveness to change. Agile is suitable for developing a minimum viable product (MVP), which is a version of a product with just enough features to be usable by early customers who can then provide feedback for future product development. Agile allows the project sponsor to deliver an MVP quickly and test it with real users, and then adapt the product based on the feedback and changing requirements. Agile also reduces the risk of wasting time and resources on a product that does not meet the customer’s needs or expectations.
NEW QUESTION 292
A meeting agenda included the following items:
– Review the goals of the project.
– Review the progress of the project.
– Discuss if the project is ready to move forward.
Which of the following best describes this type of meeting?
A.   Stand-up.
B.   Monthly status.
C.   Gap analysis.
D.   Gate review.
Answer: D
Explanation:
A gate review is a type of meeting that evaluates the completion and quality of a project stage and decides whether the project can proceed to the next stage. A gate review is a formal governance step that involves reviewing the goals, progress, risks, deliverables, and benefits of the project, and discussing if the project is still aligned with the business strategy and stakeholder expectations. A gate review can have different outcomes, such as go, kill, hold, recycle, or conditional go, depending on the assessment of the project status and viability.
NEW QUESTION 293
A project manager needs to ensure that the products produced during the project meet the highest quality standards and that team members understand the importance of these standards. Which of the following should the project manager do?
A.   Train the team members.
B.   Assess the resource pool.
C.   Develop a QA plan.
D.   Create RACI matrix.
Answer: C
Explanation:
A QA plan, or quality assurance plan, is a document that specifies the quality standards, practices, resources, specifications, and activities for a product, service, project, or contract. A QA plan helps to ensure that the products produced during the project meet the highest quality standards and that the project objectives and customer requirements are met. A QA plan also helps to communicate the quality expectations and responsibilities to the team members and other stakeholders, and to monitor and control the quality performance throughout the project. Developing a QA plan is one of the key tasks of the project manager, as it is part of the project scope management and project quality management processes.
NEW QUESTION 294
Which of the following is a typical characteristic of Scrum?
A.   Large teams.
B.   Low-risk scope.
C.   Self-organized team.
D.   Well-defined scope.
Answer: C
Explanation:
A self-organized team is a typical characteristic of Scrum, which is an agile framework for managing complex projects. A self-organized team is a group of motivated and skilled individuals who have the autonomy and authority to make decisions and collaborate on how to deliver the project goals. A self-organized team does not rely on a manager or a leader to assign tasks, monitor progress, or resolve issues. Instead, a self-organized team uses Scrum events, such as daily stand-ups, sprint planning, sprint review, and sprint retrospective, to coordinate their work, communicate with each other, and inspect and adapt their process and product.
NEW QUESTION 295
A company is creating a new technology. The company is concerned that the project details could be compromised if a cloud service is used, and another company could launch the technology before the current projected delivery. Which of the following can the company do to minimize this risk?
A.   Use an on-premises project management scheduling tool.
B.   Limit access to members of the project team.
C.   Mandate overtime to get the project completed sooner.
D.   Ensure all team members have signed a non-disclosure agreement.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Limiting access to members of the project team is a way to minimize the risk of compromising the project details if a cloud service is used. This means that only authorized and trusted individuals can access, view, modify, or share the project information stored in the cloud. Limiting access can prevent unauthorized access, data leakage, cyberattacks, or espionage from external parties who might want to steal or sabotage the new technology. Limiting access can also reduce the risk of human error, negligence, or misconduct from internal parties who might accidentally or intentionally expose or misuse the project information.
NEW QUESTION 296
A project team participates in a brainstorming session to define the guidance, direction, and approach for monitoring established procedures for developed products. Which of the following plans is the team creating?
A.   Project transition.
B.   Project management.
C.   Project communications.
D.   Project quality assurance.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Project quality assurance is the process of ensuring that the project meets the quality standards and requirements defined by the stakeholders and the organization. It involves planning, implementing, and monitoring quality activities throughout the project life cycle. Project quality assurance is different from project quality control, which is the process of inspecting and testing the project deliverables and outputs to identify and correct defects. Project quality assurance is also different from project transition, which is the process of transferring the project deliverables and outputs to the end users or customers. Project management is the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the project objectives. Project communications is the process of planning, creating, distributing, and managing information among the project stakeholders.
NEW QUESTION 297
Which of the following can be used to determine whether a sample product is within an acceptable range?
A.   Scatter diagram.
B.   Velocity chart.
C.   Control chart.
D.   Fishbone diagram.
Answer: C
Explanation:
A control chart is a graphical tool that displays the variation of a process over time and compares it to predetermined control limits. It can be used to determine whether a sample product is within an acceptable range by checking if the sample values fall within the upper and lower control limits, which indicate the expected variation of the process. If the sample values are outside the control limits or show a non-random pattern, it indicates that the process is out of control and there may be some assignable causes of variation that need to be investigated and corrected.
NEW QUESTION 298
A company is implementing a new radar system from July to September. The project manager knows these months are the peak hurricane season for this region. Which of the following should the project manager develop to mitigate the risk to the project?
A.   Data plan.
B.   Contingency plan.
C.   Rollback plan.
D.   Recovery plan.
Answer: B
Explanation:
A contingency plan is a risk mitigation strategy that involves preparing alternative courses of action in case the original plan fails or encounters unexpected problems. A contingency plan can help reduce the impact of negative risks and ensure the project continuity and success. In this case, the project manager should develop a contingency plan to mitigate the risk of hurricanes affecting the implementation of the new radar system. For example, the contingency plan could include backup resources, alternative locations, emergency procedures, and communication channels in case of a hurricane.
NEW QUESTION 299
A critical piece of equipment that is needed for the installation of a point-of-sale solution is delayed from the manufacturer. The delay will cause the project to be significantly behind schedule. The project manager decides to buy the item at a higher cost from another vendor who can supply it immediately. Which of the following risk management approaches has the project manager taken?
A.   Mitigate
B.   Transfer
C.   Accept
D.   Share
Answer: A
Explanation:
The project manager has taken a risk mitigation approach by buying the item from another vendor who can supply it immediately. Risk mitigation is a strategy that involves reducing the probability and/or impact of a negative risk to an acceptable level. By purchasing the item from another vendor, the project manager has reduced the impact of the delay on the project schedule, even though it may have increased the project cost. Risk mitigation is different from risk transfer, which involves shifting the responsibility or burden of a risk to a third party, usually through a contract or insurance. Risk acceptance is a strategy that involves acknowledging the risk and being prepared to deal with its consequences. Risk sharing is a strategy that involves allocating some or all of the ownership of a risk to another party who is willing to take on that risk, usually for some form of incentive or reward.
NEW QUESTION 300
Before a configuration can be made to a system in development, a document containing information about how the new system will interact with other systems within the organization needs to be written. Which of the following relationships best describes this scenario?
A.   start-to-start
B.   start-to-finish
C.   finish-to-finish
D.   finish-to-start
Answer: D
Explanation:
A finish-to-start relationship is a type of logical dependency between two tasks, in which the first task must be completed before the second task can start. In this scenario, the document containing information about how the new system will interact with other systems within the organization is a prerequisite for the configuration of the system in development. Therefore, the document writing task must finish before the configuration task can start, which is a finish-to-start relationship.
NEW QUESTION 301
A PM wants to provide a visual representation of how a project is organized into tasks and how the tasks relate to each other. Which of the following can the PM use?
A.   Milestone chart.
B.   Gantt chart.
C.   PERT chart.
D.   WBS.
Answer: B
Explanation:
A gantt chart is a visual representation of a project timeline that shows the tasks, durations, dependencies, and resources of a project in a horizontal bar chart format. A gantt chart can help a project manager to plan, monitor, and control the project progress, scope, and quality. A gantt chart is different from a milestone chart, which only shows the key events or deliverables of a project without the details of the tasks. A gantt chart is also different from a PERT chart, which is a network diagram that shows the logical relationships and sequence of tasks in a project. A gantt chart is also different from a WBS, which is a hierarchical breakdown of the project scope into smaller and manageable components.
NEW QUESTION 302
During a sponsor meeting, a PM is assigned to manage a new external project for an IT consultant. The sponsor wants the PM to establish an agreement regarding the exchange of money between both parties. Which of the following documents would the PM most likely create?
A.   Business requirement.
B.   Client statement of work.
C.   Formal contract.
D.   Project charter.
Answer: C
Explanation:
A formal contract is a legal document that defines the terms and conditions of the agreement between the project parties, such as the scope, schedule, budget, quality, deliverables, roles and responsibilities, payment methods, and dispute resolution mechanisms. A formal contract is essential for external projects, especially when there is an exchange of money involved, to protect the interests and rights of both parties and to ensure mutual understanding and compliance. A formal contract is different from a business requirement, which is a statement of the needs and expectations of the customer or stakeholder for the project outcome. A formal contract is also different from a client statement of work, which is a document that describes the work to be performed, the deliverables to be provided, and the acceptance criteria to be met by the project vendor or contractor. A formal contract is also different from a project charter, which is a document that authorizes the project and provides the high-level information about the project objectives, scope, stakeholders, and project manager.
NEW QUESTION 303
After a product is released for production, a tester performs a test to ensure its basic functionality is working as expected. Which of the following is the tester performing?
A.   Smoke test.
B.   Stress test.
C.   Penetration test.
D.   Regression test.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 304
Which of the following is the best example of a breach of physical security?
A.   System user IDs being used by multiple individuals.
B.   Printers that do not request user authentication.
C.   Developers having full access to both development and production environments.
D.   Project documentation that is only kept on a removable device.
Answer: D
Explanation:
A breach of physical security is an unauthorized access or damage to physical assets, such as equipment, data, or personnel. Project documentation that is only kept on a removable device is the best example of a breach of physical security, because it exposes sensitive information to theft, loss, or corruption. If the removable device is not encrypted or protected, anyone who obtains it can access the project documentation and compromise the project integrity, confidentiality, or availability. Therefore, project documentation should be stored in a secure location, backed up regularly, and protected by access controls and encryption. The other options are not examples of physical security breaches, but rather logical or administrative security breaches. System user IDs being used by multiple individuals is a violation of the principle of least privilege and accountability, which could lead to unauthorized access or misuse of system resources. Printers that do not request user authentication is a lack of proper access control, which could allow unauthorized printing or retrieval of confidential documents. Developers having full access to both development and production environments is a violation of the principle of separation of duties and environments, which could introduce errors, conflicts, or malicious code into the production system.
NEW QUESTION 305
A PM needs to calculate the progress of the whole project scope for a presentation to the sponsor. Which of the following is the first document the PM should update?
A.   Project network diagram.
B.   Gantt chart.
C.   Issue log.
D.   Risk report.
Answer: B
Explanation:
A gantt chart is a visual representation of a project timeline that shows the tasks, durations, dependencies, and resources of a project in a horizontal bar chart format. A gantt chart can help a project manager to calculate the progress of the whole project scope by comparing the planned and actual start and finish dates of each task, as well as the percentage of completion and the critical path. A gantt chart is also a useful tool for communicating the project status and performance to the sponsor and other stakeholders. Therefore, the first document that the project manager should update to calculate the progress of the whole project scope is the gantt chart.
NEW QUESTION 306
A new project team started work three months ago. The team members are increasing their work productivity and are comfortable asking for help with tasks. Which of the following describes the current stage of the project team?
A.   Performing
B.   Adjourning
C.   Forming
D.   Norming
Answer: D
Explanation:
The current stage of the project team is norming, which is the third stage of the five stages of team development. In this stage, the team members have resolved their conflicts and differences, and have established a sense of cohesion and collaboration. They are more productive, supportive, and cooperative, and they follow the agreed norms and rules of the team. They also communicate effectively and seek feedback and assistance from each other. The norming stage is preceded by the forming stage, where the team members get to know each other and the project goals, and the storming stage, where the team members experience disagreements and challenges. The norming stage is followed by the performing stage, where the team members work efficiently and autonomously towards the project outcomes, and the adjourning stage, where the team members complete the project and celebrate their achievements.
NEW QUESTION 307
A project is moving into the user acceptance testing phase. Several resources will be needed to execute different steps in the testing plan. Which of the following would be the best tool to allow the resources to remain at their desks and only react when needed?
A.   Ticketing system.
B.   Videoconference.
C.   Simple messaging system.
D.   Corporate social media.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A ticketing system is a tool that allows the project manager to assign, track, and manage tasks for the testing phase. A ticketing system can help the resources to remain at their desks and only react when needed, because they can receive notifications, updates, and feedback on their tickets through email or other channels. A ticketing system can also help the project manager to monitor the progress, quality, and issues of the testing phase, and to generate reports and metrics. A ticketing system is different from a videoconference, which is a tool that allows the project team to communicate and collaborate in real time through audio and video. A videoconference is not suitable for allowing the resources to remain at their desks and only react when needed, because it requires their active participation and attention. A ticketing system is also different from a simple messaging system, which is a tool that allows the project team to exchange text messages and files. A simple messaging system is not effective for assigning, tracking, and managing tasks for the testing phase, because it lacks the features and functions of a ticketing system, such as prioritization, categorization, status, and history. A ticketing system is also different from a corporate social media, which is a tool that allows the project team to share information and ideas through online platforms. A corporate social media is not appropriate for allowing the resources to remain at their desks and only react when needed, because it may not be secure, reliable, or professional for the testing phase.
NEW QUESTION 308
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